Does $P \Rightarrow Q $ and $Q \Rightarrow R$ tautologically imply $(P \land Q)\Rightarrow(Q\land R)$ and $(P\lor Q)\Rightarrow(Q\lor R) $?
\begin{array}{llr} 1. & P \Rightarrow Q & \\ 2. & Q \Rightarrow R & \\ 3. & (P \land Q)\Rightarrow(Q\land R)&TI,2,3 \\ 4. & (P\lor Q)\Rightarrow(Q\lor R) &TI,2,3 \end{array}
Thank you very much for your help in advance!