Consider two towers of $R$ modules $$E_1\subset E_2\subset \cdots \subset \bigcup_n E_n\subset \bigcap_n Z_n \subset\cdots\subset Z_2\subset Z_1$$ and $$\overline{E_1}\subset \overline{E_2}\subset \cdots \subset \bigcup_n \overline{E_n}\subset \bigcap_n \overline{Z_n} \subset\cdots\subset \overline{Z_2}\subset \overline{Z_1}.$$ A map $f:Z_1\to\overline{Z_1}$ so that $f(Z_n)\subset \overline{Z_n}$ and $f(E_n)\subset \overline{E_n}$ induces a map $$\tilde f:\frac{\bigcap_n Z_n}{\bigcup_n E_n}\to\frac{\bigcap_n \overline{Z_n}}{\bigcup_n \overline{E_n}}.$$ It is easy to check that if $\tilde{f_n} : \frac{Z_n}{E_n}\to \frac{\overline{Z_n}}{\overline E_n}$ is injective for all $n$ then $\tilde f$ is also injective, and one can construct counter-examples to the analog statement with surjectivity.
My question is:
If $\tilde{f_n}$ is an isomorphism for all $n$, does it follow that $\tilde f$ is an isomorphism?
I suspect so, but all my attempts of proof have failed.