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If I enumerate the even natural numbers (E), the enumeration won't contain the number 3. It seems to me that this proves that E forms a proper subset of the natural numbers (N). But that does not prove that E cannot be enumerated, or that E cannot be bijected onto N, or that N cannot be enumerated.

Cantor's diagonal argument demonstrates that his list of real numbers (L) does not contain a particular real number. Surely that proves that L is a proper subset of the real numbers (R). But how does it prove that L cannot be enumerated, or that L cannot be bijected onto R, or that R cannot be enumerated?

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    The argument proves that **no** map $f \colon \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{R}$ is surjective. One takes an arbitrary map and shows it isn't surjective. Done.2017-01-11
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    If the sets of elements of all possible lists containing real numbers are each proper subsets of the real numbers then there is no complete list of the real numbers, which means that the real numbers cannot be enumerated. By contrast, some lists of natural numbers contain all the natural numbers2017-01-12

4 Answers 4

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Cantor's diagonal argument works on any proposed enumeration $L$, not just a particular proposal (which might fail for a more obvious reason). Basically any proposed enumeration of the reals must be missing something; that's what his argument says.

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    I understand your point, but... E is a proper subset of N, but E can be bijected onto N. Being a proper subset does not deny the possibility of bijection. Cantor proves that every L is a proper subset of R. How does that prove that none of the Ls can be bijected onto R?2017-01-12
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    Cantor's diagonal argument doesn't prove that a given _set_ of real numbers is a proper subset of $\mathbb{R}$. It proves that a given _function_ from $\mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{R}$ is not surjective.2017-01-12
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    @Jim $L$ isn't just a subset of $\mathbb R$. By being a list, it represents a function from $\mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{R}$. *None* of those can be surjective by the diagonal argument, as [Daniel Fischer](http://math.stackexchange.com/users/83702/daniel-fischer) [said](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2094068/confused-about-cantors-diagonal-argument/2094070?noredirect=1#comment4304182_2094068).2017-01-12
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    Cantor proposes a function f maps N to R. He shows that there is a real number x that is not in the range of the function. So he has shown that his mapping is really f maps N to L. L is composed of elements of R but not all of them so it is a proper subset of R. "L isn't just a subset of R" is nonsense. L is not the name of the function, it is the name of the set representing the range of the function. And I would point out that there are many possible combinations of f, x, and L. :-) I want to be shown how Cantor has demonstrated that there is no bijection g maps L to R.2017-01-12
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    @Jim See the edit to my answer.2017-01-12
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    @Jim, "Cantor proposes a function $f$..." That's not quite true. Depending on the phrasing of the proof you've seen, Cantor either considers an arbitrary function $f:\mathbb N\to\mathbb R$ or supposes for sake of contradiction that $f:\mathbb N\to\mathbb R$ is surjective. Either way, Cantor shows that there is a real number $x$ that is not in $L$. Either way, the proof shows that *any* function $f:\mathbb N\to\mathbb R$ is not surjective. For a given $f$, if you think you had a bijection $g:L\to\mathbb R$, then $g\circ f$ would be a surjection from $\mathbb N$, which Cantor says you can't have2017-01-12
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I find that it helps to recast Cantor's argument as constructing something.

Specifically, we define a function $F$ from $\{$maps from $\mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{R}\}$ to $\mathbb{R}$, that is, from lists of reals to reals. This $F$, in particular, "does something" to every list.

We now prove a fact about the $F$ we've just constructed: namely, that - regardless of what list $f$ we start with - $F(f)$ is not in $ran(f)$.

We have now used the object $F$ we've constructed to show that no counting of $\mathbb{R}$ exists. But this depends crucially on the part of the previous paragraph that says

regardless of what list $f$ we start with

and it's here that your idea breaks down. What you've shown is that there is some list of naturals which is not surjective; what you would need to do is show that every list of naturals fails to be surjective.


EDIT: Let me add the following, which I hope will help.

You are quite right that "is a proper subset of" does not imply "is smaller than". So just knowing that $ran(f)\not=\mathbb{R}$ for some listing $f$ of reals does not mean that $ran(f)$ is smaller than $\mathbb{R}$!

However, again, note that Cantor has shown that every $f:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ has the property that $ran(f)\not=\mathbb{R}$. It is the fact that every $f$ has "small range," not the fact that some $f$ has "small range," which proves that $\mathbb{R}$ is uncountable.

One way to think about this that might help is the following. Suppose $f:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$. By Cantor's argument, we know $ran(f)\not=\mathbb{R}$. But couldn't $ran(f)$ have the same size as $\mathbb{R}$, nonetheless?

Well, suppose it did - that is, suppose there were a surjection $g$ from $ran(f)$ to $\mathbb{R}$. Then think about $g\circ f$. This is a function from $\mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{R}$, and - by assumption on $g$ - it is surjective.

But that's a problem! Cantor's argument shows that no map from $\mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{R}$ can be surjective. So we have a contradiction.

So not only is $ran(f)$ a proper subset of $\mathbb{R}$, for every $f:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$, but $ran(f)$ is always strictly smaller than $\mathbb{R}$!

This is an interesting phenomenon, that happens a lot in mathematics: a weak universal statement can sometimes "strengthen itself." Basically, what this looks like is the following:

  • We prove "Every Foo has the weak Bar property."

  • Now, in general, the weak Bar property does not imply the strong Bar property.

  • However, from a Foo without the weak Bar property, we can build a Foo without the strong Bar property.

  • So by the first bullet point, we've in fact shown: Every Foo has the strong Bar property.

(The following paragraph is subjective, and you may not find it helpful - feel free to ignore it if so. For contrast, consider the phenomenon of strengthening the induction hypothesis in proofs by induction: you want to prove "All $n$ have property $\alpha$" by induction, but the obvious attack doesn't work - so instead you prove "All $n$ have property $\beta$" for a stronger property $\beta$! And, even though this should be harder to prove (you're proving a stronger result after all), it winds up being easier. That is, to prove a weak thing, you find yourself having to prove a strong thing. What's going on above is sort of the dual of this: we prove a weak thing, and then that immediately implies the strong thing!)

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    I like this answer.2017-01-12
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    @Jim, you're allowed to change which answer you accept (if you want to). Just click the green checkmark next to the currently accepted answer, then click the checkmark to the left of a different one.2017-01-12
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Cantor's diagonal argument does not "demonstrate that his list of real numbers (L) does not contain a particular real number", it proves that for any list of real numbers, there always exists a real number not on the list. Your fact about the list of even numbers does not make the same assertion - you construct a natural number not on a specific list, Cantor constructs a real number not on an arbitrary list.

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    As a further point, even if you try to add the constructed number to the start of the list, Hilbert's Hotel-style, the diagonal argument will simply construct another real number not on your new list.2017-01-11
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The structure of Cantor's argument is:

Suppose $L$ is a foo.

Then (insert some derivations here), ergo contradiction.

Ergo, there are no foos.

In particular:

Suppose $L$ is a surjection $\mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$.

Then (insert some derivations here), ergo contradiction.

Ergo, there are no surjections $\mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$.

The idea behind this style of argument is really that by dealing with an arbitrary $L$, it's kind of like dealing with every possible $L$ at once. We conclude that every possible $L$ leads to a contradiction, and therefore that there are no $L$'s with the property of interest.

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    Nope, no contradictions necessary. The gist of the argument is in the hand-waving.2017-01-12
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    @Spencer, I find your comment a little obnoxious. It's true that the usual argument can be recast as a direct proof, but the usual argument proceeds by contradiction. And, since the usual argument is quite correct, your "nope" is somehow quite inappropriate. And, if you'll read the OP's question carefully, you'll probably infer, as I did, that his/her difficulty has nothing to do with diagonalization. Rather, the OP had not, at the time of writing the question, understood that we can infer a universal statement by considering a fixed but arbitrary entity, which is what I tried to address.2017-01-12