I'm currently trying to solve this problem:
Is the following argument valid or invalid?
My stereo system is faulty: there is no sound coming out of the left speaker. Switching the speaker leads will not bring sound to the left speaker if and only if the left speaker is faulty. If switching the speaker leads causes the right speaker to fail, then there is a fault with either the amplifier or the CD player. Switching the leads from the CD player has no effect if and only if there is no problem with the CD player. I discovered the following: switching the leads to the speakers resulted in both channels failing, and switching the leads from the CD player reversed the problem from the left to the right speaker. Therefore replacing the CD player and the left speaker will solve the problem.
Now, breaking down the statements I get:
- sl: Switching speaker leads result in left channel failure.
- sr: Switching speaker leads result in right channel failure.
- fl: The left speaker is faulty.
- fa: The amplifier is faulty.
- fc: The CD player is faulty.
- ne: Switching the leads from the CD player has no effect.
Now rewriting the situation in symbolic form I believe its:
- $sl \iff fl$
- $sr \implies (fa \lor fc)$
- $\neg{fc} \iff ne$
$sl \land sr \land \neg{ne}$
$\therefore fc \land fl \land \neg{fa}$
Answering the question I determine that the argument is invalid I found a contradiction when:
- sl = true
- fl = true
- sr = true
- fa = true
- fc = true
- ce = false
Now I started to look around the internet and found a solution but it is not the same as mine, and can't understand its solution. Here is the link. It basically had most of the same statements, but instead of having statement ne it has two statements:
- cl: Switching CD leads results in left channel failure
- cr: Switching CD leads results in right channel failure
Then the person goes on and rewrites it in symbolic form as follows:
- $sl \iff fl$
- $sr \implies (fa \lor fc)$
- $cl \iff \neg{fc}$
$sl \land sr \land cr$
$\therefore (fc \lor fl) \land \neg{fa}$
First of all I don't understand why "Switching the leads from the CD player has no effect" is interpreted as "Switching CD leads results in left channel failure".
Second I don't understand the reasoning why the conclusion has to have $fc \lor fl$. Isn't "replacing the CD player and the left speaker" saying that the author is assuming that the speaker AND CD player both don't work AND implicitly saying that the amplifier DOES work.
Am I missing something here?