Cantor's Theorem:
For any set $X$, there is no onto function $f:X\to \mathcal{P}(X)$
While I was looking at the proof for this, my head decided to stop understanding it. I mean, I think I understand the proof itself, but doesn't it assume that the subset of the objects that aren't in the defined function is non-empty? Looking at it, I think that it only proves that that subset has no element. Doesn't it derive a contradiction from an assumption made earlier? Can you guys help me understand?