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I need to prove that $$\frac\pi2 \le\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+1}\le\frac\pi2+1.$$ Can anyone help me with that?

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    use the fourier series of exponential. $f(x) =\exp(-x)$ and $f(x+2\pi) = f(x)$2017-01-13

2 Answers 2

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$\frac{1}{1+x^2}$ is a decreasing function on $\mathbb{R}^+$ and $$\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{dx}{x^2+1}=\frac{\pi}{2},$$ hence the given inequality is trivial by series-integral comparison.


For a tighter inequality, we may notice that due to $\mathcal{L}^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+x^2}\right)=\sin(s)$ it follows that: $$ \sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{1}{1+n^2} = 1+\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin(s)}{e^s-1}\,ds \stackrel{\text{Residues}}{=}\frac{1+\pi\coth\pi}{2} $$ and since $\coth(\pi)$ is pretty close to $1$, the given series is pretty close to $\frac{\pi+1}{2}$.


A more elementary way is to exploit creative telescoping through: $$ \frac{1}{n^2+1} = \arctan\left(n+\tfrac{1}{2}\right)-\arctan\left(n-\tfrac{1}{2}\right) - \frac{C}{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)},\quad 0\leq C \leq \tfrac{2}{3}$$ leading to $\sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{1}{n^2+1}\approx\frac{\pi}{2}+\arctan\tfrac{1}{2}$.

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    Thanks, but this only proves the left part, what about the right? i'm talking about the first part of the answer.2017-01-11
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    @CodeHoarder: what is left to prove? If a number is very close to $\frac{\pi+1}{2}$, it is trivial that it belongs to the interval $\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}+1\right)$, since $\frac{\pi+1}{2}$ is just the midpoint of such interval.2017-01-11
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    @JackD'Aurizio, I think the OP's comment means he or she sees how $y=1/(1+x^2)$ lies *beneath* a step function related to the series but not how it lies *above* one.2017-01-11
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    I'm talking about the first part, which is the only one i understood. I agree that $\frac{\pi}2=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_{n}^{n+1}\frac1{x^2+1}\le\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac1{n^2+1}$ but what about the right inequality, that was my problem.2017-01-11
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    @CodeHoarder: By setting $f(x)=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$ we have that $$\frac{\pi}{2}=\int_{0}^{+\infty}f(x)\,dx \leq f(0)+f(1)+f(2)+\ldots$$ but also $$\frac{\pi}{2}=\int_{0}^{+\infty}f(x)\,dx \geq f(1)+f(2)+\ldots$$2017-01-11
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Actually We can compute $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+1}$ by Poisson summation formula.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poisson_summation_formula.

We compute its Fourier transform Let $f(x)=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$,then its fourier transform $\hat {f}(x)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-iwx}dx=\pi e^{-|w|}$.

then use summation formula.

$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f(na)=\frac{1}{a}\hat{f}(\frac{2n\pi}{a})$,$a \neq 0$

Let $a=1$,$f(x)=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$.

$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+1}=\pi\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-2\pi|n|}=\pi coth\pi$.

$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+1}=2\cdot\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+1}-1$

Then your series converges to

$\frac{1+\pi coth\pi}{2}$

Then LHS obvious

As for RHS,We only need to prove

$coth\pi\le 1+\frac{1}{\pi}$

We only need to prove $\frac{e^{-2\pi}}{1-e^{-2\pi}}\le \frac{1}{2\pi}$

Let $g(t)=(t+1)e^{-t}-1$.

Show $g(t) \le 0$ when $t \ge 0$ yourself.Let $t=2\pi$.

Done.

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    Thanks, but this is too advanced for me.2017-01-11
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    You can see the answer by Jack D'Auzirio.He computes it by residue.2017-01-11