Recently in my calculus class I have been taught $\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin x}{x}$ =1. Now, in trigonometry I have studied $\sin 0=0$. Also, I don't see $\sin x/x=1$. Now my confusion is that if I have to use these identities in some practical applications , which of them should I use?
Confusion around $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\sin x}{x}, \sin x/x,\sin 0/0$
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4I think you need to read http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/75130/how-to-prove-that-lim-limits-x-to0-frac-sin-xx-1 – 2017-01-11
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0I know the proof of $lim_{x->0}sinx/x=1 but I need to the difference between the three expressions as mentioned in my question – 2017-01-11
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0From the taylor expansion of $\sin x$ one can see it behaves like $x$ around $0$. So they cancel out. The fraction behaves like $1$ near $0$. – 2017-01-11
4 Answers
$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin x}{x}$ is a expression that evaluates to $1$.
$(\sin x)/x$ is a function of $x$.
$(\sin 0)/0$ is an undefined quotient $= 0/0$.
I won't go into details why $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin x}{x} = 1$ but you need to remember that the value of $\sin$ at $0$ has nothing to do with this limit.
If you know the Taylor expansion of the function around limit point, you can substitute the function with its Taylor expansion around the limit point
This is a good way of saving time in limit computation.
$$\sin x = x-\frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^5}{5!} - \dots$$
$$\implies \sin x = \mathcal{O}(x) \ \ \ \ \ (x \to 0)$$
$$\implies \lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin x}{x}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{x}{x}=\lim_{x\to0}{1}=1$$
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1You need to make precise (with the [little-o](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_O_notation#Little-o_notation) notation, for example) what you mean by $$\sin x \approx x \ \ (\text{around }0)$$ Otherwise this is not a proof. – 2017-01-11
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0No proof was intended. Just a short cut was introduced, @Guest . Proof is available in the linked question. – 2017-01-11
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0@Guest Is it correct now? – 2017-06-18
The limit as $x\to0$ of a function has nothing to do with the value of that function at $0$.
If you are working with real-valued functions, then the maximal domain for $f(x):=\frac{\sin x}{x}$ is $\mathbb{R}\backslash\{0\}$ since at $0$ you get a division by $0$ which is undefined. The expression $\frac{\sin0}{0}$ doesn't make sense because of this. However, it is customary to write $\frac{\sin x}{x}$ when we are really considering the sinc function $$ \operatorname{sinc}x:=\begin{cases}\frac{\sin x}{x},&&x\neq0,\\1,&&x=0\end{cases} $$ so it is possible that using this definition, $\frac{\sin 0}{0}$ is meant to equal $1$. Note that this value is the one which extends continuously $f$ at $0$ because $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin x}{x}=1$.
There are no real numbers for which $\frac{\sin x}{x}=1$. As mentioned earlier, $x=0$ won't work because you get an undefined expression, and you can convince yourself graphically that there are no nonzero $x$ for which $\sin x=x$ (or, better, prove it).
As the question is of indeterminate form, by using L'Hospital rule we have $$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac {\sin x}{x}=\lim_{x\to 0} \frac {\cos x}{1}=1$$