We have to solve for $x$ and $y$:
$$\left \{ \begin{align*} \cos (2x+3y) &= \frac{1}{2} \\ \cos (3x+2y) &= \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \end{align*} \right.$$
I got $$\left \{ \begin{align*} 2x+3y &= 2n\pi \pm\frac{\pi}{3} \\ 3x+2y &= 2m\pi \pm\frac{\pi}{6} \end{align*} \right.$$
The final answer in the book is $x=\dfrac{1}{5} \left[ (6m-4n)\pi \pm \dfrac{\pi}{2} \mp \dfrac{2\pi}{3} \right]$
Why is it $\mp \dfrac{2\pi}{3}$?
If for some value we had taken
$$2x+3y=2n\pi -\frac{\pi}{3}$$
and
$$3x+2y=2m\pi +\frac{\pi}{6}$$
The value of $x$ would be
$$\frac{1}{5}[(6m-4n)\pi+\frac{\pi}{2}+\frac{2\pi}{3}]$$
which is not included in the general solution.