It is common practice to write:
$$f(x+h) = f(x) + f'(x)h + O(h^2)$$
We know that the remainder has the form $ \frac{1}{2}f''(\xi)h^2 $ with $\xi \in (x, x+h)$. That is, $\xi$ is dependent of $h$.
What is the justification to use the big-$O$ notation, that implies there exists $C > 0 $, independent of $h$ so that
$$f(x+h) \leq f(x) + f'(x)h + Ch^2$$