I have read that countable additivity is not sufficient for assigning a measure to every subset of the reals in order to give a notion of the length of an interval. That we should instead use the weaker idea of countable subadditivity.
An example of the problem is: Take two real numbers and consider them equivalent if there difference is rational. Let $E$ be the subset of the half unit interval that contains exactly one element of each equivalence class. Assume all translates of $E$ have the same measure. Then countable additivity implies that the unit interval has measure zero or infinity.
- I understand up to the part "Let E be the subset of the half unit interval that contains exactly one element of each equivalence class." I don't understand then how it is true that the unit interval has measure zero or infinity?
- Does this example fully describe the issue with countable additivity or are there other problems that arise due to it?
Are there