Suppose one interprets quadratic polynomials (i.e., parabolas) \begin{eqnarray} F(x) &=& a x^2 + b x + c\\ G(x) &=& d x^2 + e x + f \end{eqnarray} as vectors $(a,b,c)$ and $(d,e,f)$ in $\mathbb{R}^3$. Then the formal cross-product of these vector coefficients is $$ (a,b,c) \times (d,e,f) = (-c e + b f, c d - a f, -b d + a e) \;, $$ which might be interpreted as $$ F{\times}G(x) = (-c e + b f) x^2 + (c d - a f) x + (-b d + a e) \;. $$
Is there some way to view the cross-product of polynomial vectors as another polynomial that is orthogonal to the originals, in a sense analogous to vectors in $\mathbb{R}^3$? So I would expect that, for generic polynomials, for some inner product (perhaps with a weighting function), $$ \int F(x) [F(x) \times G(x)] dx = 0 $$ In other words,
Is there some viewpoint from which the cross-product of two polynomials $F$ and $G$ yields a polynomial $F {\times} G$ which is orthogonal to both $F$ and $G$?
I illustrate a few special cases below, e.g., when $G(x) = s F(x)$ for some scale factor, then $F{\times}G(x)=0$. But in general I do not see a way to interpret $F{\times}G$ as "orthogonal" in some sense to $F$ and $G$.
$G$ is a constant times $F$. $F$ and $G$ are linear: $a=d=0$.
$F$ and $G$ have no constant term: $c=f=0$. $F$ and $G$ are centered on the $y$-axis: $b=e=0$.