Two real matrices are given:
$$A=\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 5 & -3\\ 0 & -1 & 6 \end{pmatrix} \text{ and } B=\begin{pmatrix} 3 & 1\\ 4 & -2\\ 0 & 6 \end{pmatrix}$$
Now I want show that $(A \cdot B)^{2}= (A \cdot B) \cdot (A \cdot B)$
The problem is I don't know if we are allowed to say that both sides are the same. That means I have to do it on both sides I think :(
Or what do you think?
Assuming I have to do it on both sides, how would the left side look then, correctly written as matrices?
Would this notation be correct? $$(A \cdot B)^{2} = \begin{pmatrix} 2 \cdot 3 + 5 \cdot 4 -3 \cdot 0 & 2 \cdot 1+5(-2) -3 \cdot 6 \\ 0 \cdot 3 -1 \cdot 4+6 \cdot 0 & 0 \cdot 1-1(-2)+6 \cdot 6 \end{pmatrix}^{2}= \begin{pmatrix} 26 & -26\\ -4 & 38 \end{pmatrix}^{2}= \begin{pmatrix} 26 & -26\\ -4 & 38 \end{pmatrix} \cdot \begin{pmatrix} 26 & -26\\ -4 & 38 \end{pmatrix}= \begin{pmatrix} 26 \cdot 26 -26(-4) & 26(-26)-26 \cdot 38\\ -4 \cdot 26+38 \cdot (-4) & -4 \cdot (-26)+38 \cdot 38 \end{pmatrix}= \begin{pmatrix} 780 & -1664\\ -256 & 1548 \end{pmatrix}$$
Can I write it like that and do I have to calculate the other side really too?