Let $V$ be vector space over a field $K$ and let $f$ be a linear operator on $V$. Suppose that $f \circ f=0.$
Show that $f^t \circ f^t=0.$
Is this really as simple as noting that $f^t \circ f^t=(f\circ f)^t=0$ or is there more to it than that?
Show that $f^t \circ f^t=0.$
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linear-algebra
transpose
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0is V finite dimensional ? – 2017-01-09
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0@SoumikGhosh Yes $V$ is finite dimensional. – 2017-01-09
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0then that's all there is to it. – 2017-01-09