I am trying to show that given $A, B \subset R$, both non-empty, show that $\inf{(A \cup B)} = \min{\{\inf{A}, \inf{B}\}}$. I have done it using definitions mainly but I was wondering if there was a more rigorous approach to take:
By definition, $\inf A \le a$ $\forall a \in A$ and $\inf B \le b$ $\forall b \in B$, from this it is clear that if we combine $B$ and $A$, its infimum must be less than $\min{\{\inf A, \inf B \}}$ for $\inf (A \cup B) \le x$ $\forall x \in A \cup B$ to hold by definition.
Any advice or confirmation of this proof being sufficient is appreciated, thanks!