Let $A=\{a_{i,j}\}_{1\leq i,j\leq n}$ be a square real-valued matrix and $M>0$ such that $$\left| \sum_{1\leq i,j\leq n}a_{i,j}t_{i}s_{j}\right|\leq M $$ holds for every real-valued sequences $\{t_{i}\}_{i=1}^{n}$ and $\{s_{j}\}_{j=1}^{n}$ satisfying $\left| t_{i}\right|\leq 1$ and $\left| s_{j}\right|\leq 1$ for all $1\leq i,j\leq n$.
My question is as follows:
Let $B=\{b_{i,j}\}_{1\leq i,j\leq n}$ be a real-valued matrix satisfying $\left| b_{i,j}\right|\leq 1$ for all $1\leq i,j\leq n$. Prove that $$\left| \sum_{1\leq i,j\leq n}a_{i,j}b_{i,j}t_{i}s_{j}\right|\leq M $$ holds for every real-valued sequences $\{t_{i}\}_{i=1}^{n}$ and $\{s_{j}\}_{j=1}^{n}$ satisfying $\left| t_{i}\right|\leq 1$ and $\left| s_{j}\right|\leq 1$ for all $1\leq i,j\leq n$.
I'm trying to express $b_{i,j}$ as $b_{i,j}=c_{i}d_{j}$ for all $1\leq i,j\leq n$. But, in general, this expression is incorrect unless $rank(B)=1$. Is there another way to prove above inequality?
Renew my question: Thank JimmyK4542 for giving the counterexample! Under what condition does above conclusion hold?