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The following is Problem 11 from Chapter 3 of Leo Breiman's book, Probability (I'm doing some self-study). It states:

Let $X_1, X_2, ...$ be independent and $X_k \geq 0$. If for some $\delta$, $0 < \delta < 1$, there exists an $x$ such that:

$$\int_{\{X_k > x\}} X_k \,dP \leq \delta E\left[X_k\right] \, \forall k$$

show that:

$$\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} X_k < \infty \, \text{a.s.} \implies \sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} E\left[X_k\right] < \infty$$

My attempt so far: I have that, since $E\left[X_k\right] = \int_{\{X_k \leq x\}} X_k \,dP + \int_{\{X_k > x\}} X_k \,dP \leq x P(X_k \leq x) + \delta E\left[X_k\right]$, after some algebra, it holds that $E\left[X_k\right] \leq \frac{x P(X_k \leq x) }{1 - \delta}$ $\forall \delta$ and resp. $x$. We can thus say that $\sum_{k = 1}^{n} E\left[X_k\right] \leq \frac{x}{1 - \delta} \sum_{k = 1}^{n} P(X_k \leq x)$. I also see nothing forbidding allowing $\delta$ and $x$ to depend on $k$ and thus saying $\sum_{k = 1}^{n} E\left[X_k\right] \leq \sum_{k = 1}^{n} \frac{x_k}{1 - \delta_k} P(X_k \leq x_k)$. If I could show that a.s. convergence allows for the right-hand-side to converge somehow, I have a proof. But nothing comes to mind to show that.

Another line of thought: It's known that if $Y_k$ are mean-zero independent random variables, that $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} Y_k < \infty$ a.s. iff $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} Var(Y_k) < \infty$. Consider the sum $\sum_{k = 1}^{n} (X_k - E\left[X_k\right])$, a series of mean-zero random variables. Suppose we show that this is finite almost surely, likely by showing that $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} E\left[\left(X_k - E\left[X_k\right]\right)^2\right] < \infty$. Then we would have that $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} (X_k - E\left[X_k\right]) = \sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} X_k + \sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} E\left[X_k\right] < \infty$ a.s. Since $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} X_k < \infty \, \text{a.s.}$, this is only possible if $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} E\left[X_k\right] < \infty$. So the question is can we show that the above conditions allow $\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} E\left[\left(X_k - E\left[X_k\right]\right)^2\right] < \infty$.

Thoughts?

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    Are you allowed to use the [*Kolmogorov three-series theorem*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kolmogorov's_three-series_theorem)?2017-01-08
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    From your link, it looks like some parts can be used. See my edit; this should give some idea about how much of the theorem can be used.2017-01-08

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Although not explicit in the wikipedia article for Kolmogorov three-series theorem, the constant $A$ appearing in the condition (i)-(iii) can be chosen to be arbitrary. Now if we set $A = x$, where $x$ such that your condition is satisfied, then with $Y_n = X_n \mathbf{1}_{\{X_n \leq x\}}$ we know that

  1. $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} Y_n$ converges a.s. by comparison test.

  2. $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \Bbb{E}[Y_n]$ converges (this is where Kolmogorov three-series theorem is required).

  3. $\Bbb{E}[X_n] \leq \frac{1}{1-\delta} \Bbb{E}[Y_n]$.

Thus it follows that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \Bbb{E}[X_n]$ converges by comparison test, given Kolmogorov three-series theorem.

I am thinking about whether we can avoid the use of this sledgehammer method by taking advantage of the fact that $X_n$ are non-negative.

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    It's unlikely that the positivity can be used in any way. Say, you have just positive and bounded variables such that the corresponding series converges a.s. How do you prove that the series of expectations converges?2017-01-08
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    Breiman has the following Theorem 3.34: if $X_1, X_2, ...$ are independent random variables such that $E(X_k) = 0$ and $|X_k| \leq \alpha < \infty$, almost-sure convergence implies convergence of the squared expectations. So perhaps by recentering the variables and showing that somehow the sum converges almost surely gives the needed result. After all, we have that $|Y_k - E(Y_k)| \leq \max(x, E(X_k))$ for all k. Now that I think about it, though, this is close but not quite close enough.2017-01-08
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    I'd say you have a proof, but it seems to use information that I "don't know" so far, but I'll keep looking into it. Thanks!2017-01-08