For years I've been using the following definition of the general position of a set of points in $\mathbb{R}^d:$
"The set of points in $\mathbb R^d$ is in general position iff every $(d+1)$ points are not in any possible hyperplane, i.e. no hyperplane contains more than $d$ points."
However, recently I have been reading Computational topology by Edelsbrunner and Harer, and their definition is the following:
"We say that the finite set $S \subset \mathbb{R}^d$ is in general position if no $d+2$ of the points lie on a common $(d-1)$-sphere."
These definitions are clearly different. To see it, take $d=2$ and consider the set of $4$ points forming a square. They satisfy the first definition, but not the second. Also, take $3$ colinear points. They satisfy the the second definition, but not the first.
So my question is: which definition is more common? Are they somehow related? Is it possible that one of these definitions is known under a different name?
Thank you for your time.