Suppose that $ A_1 \cap A_2 \cap \dots \cap A_n = \emptyset $ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$
Is it also true that $ A_1 \cap A_2 \cap \dots = \emptyset$ ?
Could I have a hint as how to think about disproving this? (I'm assuming it's false with some fancy counterexample that I'm probably not going to guess...)