Let $H \unlhd G$, where $G$ is a finite group, and $ x \in G/H$ of order $p^r$ for some prime $p$ and $r \geq 0$. Then there exists $b \in G$ such that the order of $b$ is $p^r$ and $\pi(b) = x$ where $\pi$ denotes the canoncial projection.
If $r = 0$, we have that the order of $x$ is one which implies that $x$ is the neutral element in $G/H$. Hence $e$ satisfies $\pi(e) = x$ and the order of $e$ is also one.
Thus assume $r > 0$. Now the order of $x$ is $p^r$. Furthermore we can write $x = gH$ for some $g \in G$. Thus we must have $bH = gH$ which implies $b^{-1}g \in H$ or $b = gh$ for some $h \in H$. Furthermore, since the canoncial projection is a homomorphism we have that the order of $gH$ divides the order of $gh$ which implies that the order of $gh$ is $p^s$ for some $s \geq r$. Now by Frobenius we have that $\langle gh \rangle$ has a subgroup of order $p^r$ and since it is a cyclic group also an element of order $p^r$. This element is of the form $(gh)^k$ for some $k \in \mathbb{Z}$. But now I am stucked, somehow it is not possible to show $\pi((gh)^k) = x$ which I think is wrong.
Can somebody help me out?
Edit. With Frobenius I mean:
Suppose the prime power $p^s > 1$ is a divisor of the order of a finite group $G$. Then there is a subgroup of order $p^s$.