I've just seen this being used:
$\dim(\text{ann}(\text{im}(\phi))=\dim(W)-\dim(\text{im}(\phi))$
and I can't figure out why it works. I've looked through all the relevant definitions and I still don't see why it works. The justification for it being used is 'eqns-solns', so I'm not really sure where that's come from.
In this case, $\phi:V \to W$ is a linear map and $\phi^T :W^* \to V^*$ is its transpose. We also know that $\ker(\phi^T)=\dim(\text{ann}(\text{im}(\phi))$.