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I was going over my notes and came across the following theorem:

Suppose $(a_{n})$, $(b_{n})$ are real sequences of positive real numbers. If the following hold:

(i) $(b_{n})$ is convergent;

(ii) $(a_{n})$ is increasing; and

(iii) $a_{n} \leq b_{n}$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$,

then $(a_{n})$ is also convergent.

I have followed the proof, which seems fairly straightforward: $(b_{n})$ is convergent so bounded above. From (iii) we can then deduce that $(a_{n})$ is also bounded above. Since $(a_{n})$ is bounded above and increasing it converges to its supremum and the result follows.

But it doesn't seem to use the positivity requirement of the sequences. Why do $a_{n},b_{n}>0$ for each $n\in\mathbb{N}$? Or am I missing something?

Thanks.

  • 2
    The positivity requirement is unneeded.2017-01-06

1 Answers 1

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This is not needed. Your theorem is also true if $a_n$ and $b_n$ are any real numbers.

  • 0
    That was my feeling so glad to have it reinforced! Thanks.2017-01-06