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Why is the following summation equal to the following formula? Could you guys show a proof?

$$\sum_{j=1}^{n} k = k*n$$

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    Note $$\sum_{j=1}^{n}a_j=a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n $$ Set $a_1=a_2=\cdots=a_n=k$ thus $$\sum_{j=1}^{n}k=\underbrace{k+k+\cdots+k}_{n}=kn$$2017-01-06
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    The summand is constant with respect to $j$ so you are just summing the number $k$ to itself $n$ times.2017-01-06
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    Can you explain what $\sum_{j = 1}^n k$ means? If you can, you should be able to explain the "why" part. I would use induction for the actual proof (if, after explaining "why", such a thing needs proof).2017-01-06
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    @BehrouzMaleki thanks man! I suggest adding it as an answer though, because it completely answers my question!2017-01-06

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$$\sum_{j=1}^n k = \underbrace{k + k + \ldots + k}_n = k \times n.$$