Here is the theorem,
Let $G$ and $L$ be two closed subspaces in a Banach space $E$. The following properties are equivalent:
(a) $G + L$ is closed in $E$
(b) $G^{\perp} + L^{\perp}$ is closed in $E^*$
(c) $G + L = (G^{\perp} \cap L^{\perp})^{\perp}$
(d) $G^{\perp} + L^{\perp} = (G \cap L)^{\perp}$
In the proof, he writes
(d) $\Rightarrow$ (b) is obvious.
Why is this obvious?
Assuming (d), let $f$ be a limit point in $E^*$. Then there exists a sequence of continuous linear operators $\{g_n + l_n\}$, $g_n \in G^{\perp}$, $l_n \in L^{\perp}$ such that $||g_n + l_n - f||_{E^*} \to 0$. Since $G^{\perp} + L^{\perp} = (G \cap L)^{\perp}$, we must have that $\{g_n + l_n\} \subset (G \cap L)^{\perp}$, so $g_n(x) + l_n(x) = 0$ for all $x \in G \cap L$. I'm not really sure if I'm doing this correctly, or where to go from here. Is this how one normally shows closedness in the dual space (by showing that $\|g_n + l_n - f \|_{E^*} \to 0$ implies that $f \in G^{\perp} + L^{\perp}$)?