We consider $f_n(x)=x^n$ on $[0,1]$. Each function $f_n(x)$ is continuous, but the limit function $f(x)$ is not continuous: $$ f(x)=\left\{ \begin{array}{ll} 0, 0\leq x<1\\ 1, x=1\\ \end{array} \right. $$
Question 1: How can we prove that: $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}(\lim_{x\rightarrow 1}f_n(x))=1 $$ $$ \lim_{x\rightarrow 1}(\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}f_n(x))=0 $$
Question 2: Is uniform convergence of $f_n(x)\rightarrow f(x)$ a sufficient condition to get the same result if we interchange the limits?