Using the ratio test:
$$\lim_{\text{k}\to\infty}\left|\frac{\left(\frac{\left(-\text{n}\right)^{\text{k}+1}\cdot\left(\left(\text{k}+1\right)!\right)}{\left(\text{k}+1\right)^{\text{k}+1}}\right)}{\left(\frac{\left(-\text{n}\right)^\text{k}\cdot\left(\text{k}!\right)}{\text{k}^\text{k}}\right)}\right|=\lim_{\text{k}\to\infty}\left|-\text{n}\left(\frac{\text{k}}{1+\text{k}}\right)^\text{k}\right|=\left|\text{n}\right|\lim_{\text{k}\to\infty}\left|\left(\frac{\text{k}}{1+\text{k}}\right)^\text{k}\right|=\frac{\left|\text{n}\right|}{e}>1$$
Which leads to:
$$\left|\text{n}\right|>e$$