A number $ A_{1}A_{2}...A_{n} $ is called a (decimal) pure prime number iff $ A_{1},A_{1}A_{2} $ ... and $ A_{1}A_{2}...A_{n} $ are all prime. Decimal pure prime numbers are finite in number; here is full list of those $$ \{53, 317, 599, 797, 2393, 2399, 3793, 3797, 7331, 23333, 23339, 31193, 31379, 37339, 37397, 71933, 73331, 373393, 593993, 719333, 739397,739399, 2399333, 7393931,7393933, 23399339, 29399999, 37337999, 59393339, 73939133\} $$ (+ subparts, i.e. $5, 31 $ etc., $ 83 $ total)
So, this might be proved by brute-force. But is true that for every basis $b$, $b$ -ary pure prime numbers are finite in number?