As indicated in the title, I want to show with outmost possible rigor and without using too advanced techniques that $\Omega=\mathbb{R}^3\backslash\{(0,0,z)\ \mid\ z\in\mathbb{R}\}$ isn't simply connected (which intuitively is obvious). Here is my attempt:
Suppose $\Omega$ is simply connected, then for $\alpha,\beta:[0,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}^3$, $\alpha:t\mapsto (\cos t,\sin t,0)$, $\beta:t\mapsto(\cos t,-\sin t,0)$ there exists $F\in C^0([0,\pi]\times[0,1],\Omega)$ (we write $F=(F^1,F^2,F^3)$) such that $F(t,0)=\alpha(t)$ and $F(t,1)=\beta(t)$ for all $t\in[0,\pi]$ as well as $F(0,s)=(1,0,0)$ and $F(\pi,s)=(-1,0,0)$ for all $s\in[0,1]$.
As for $s\in[0,1]$ fix we have $F^1(0,s)=1$ and $F(\pi,s)=-1$, there exists $f(s)\in (0,\pi)$ such that $F^1(f(s),s)=0$. If we could prove that there exists such an $f:[0,1]\to(0,\pi)$ such that $f$ is continuous, then we see that $F^2(f(0),0)=1$ and $F^2(f(1),1)=-1$ and thus there would have to be an $s\in(0,1)$ such that $F^2(f(s),s)=0$ and thus $F(f(s),s)\notin\Omega$, contradiction.
However, I don't see how to prove the global existence of such an $f$ (intuitively it should exist though). By the inversion theorem, we can conclude that such an inverse exists locally around $s=0$ and $s=1$, but I fail to see how to extend this argument.
