-1
$\begingroup$

For any given function f that takes two inputs, x and y, and for any arbitrary amount of iterations, where both x and y could be any arbitrary real number would the ordering of possible y inputs be commutative? For example can I prove

f(f(f(x, n0), n1), n2)

would always be equal to

f(f(f(x, n1), n2), n0)

for any arbitrary amount of n values and for any arbitrary ordering of those n values?

  • 0
    Here's a simple counterexample via Desmos: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/x9ndorvotu2017-01-04

1 Answers 1

1

It's not true. For example, consider $f(x,y) = \sqrt{x+y}$. Then you can check that $$ \sqrt{\sqrt{3}+3} = f(f(1,2),3) \neq f(f(1,3),2) = 2. $$