Let $(X,\tau)$ be a topological space satisfying $T_i$ axiom, and $\emptyset\neq Y \subsetneq X$ endowed with the induced topology via $\tau$ denoted by $\tau_Y$.
Is $(Y,\tau_Y)$ also a $T_i$-space?
As exerices for the class I enrolled this semester, I proved them up to $T_3$, and after checking some articles about these axioms, I figured out that all of these axioms force stronger sense of topologically distinguishability upon the space, in other words being distinct(not the same) points or subsets is not enough, we want stronger form of separability than of either distinctness(for points and subsets) or disjointness(for subsets). Thus, one can argue that this restriction can clearly hold in the subspace, because the subspace is its superspace except some points are absent. Is this kind of reasoning sufficient and rigorous? I'm a little insecure about it, but if I'd heard it from an instructor I would immediately add it to the system of my true statements.