3
$\begingroup$

I'm going through the proof of theorem 1.17 of Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis.

Theorem 1.17. Let $f: X \to [0,\infty]$ be measurable. There exist simple measurable functions $s_n$ on $X$ such that

  1. $0 \leq s_1 \leq s_2 \leq \dots \leq f$,
  2. $s_n(x) \to f(x)$ as $n \to \infty$, for every $x \in X$.

The proof starts by defining $\delta_n = 2^{-n}$, for each $n$ and each real number $t$ there's an integer $k_n(t)$ such that

$$ k_n(t)\delta_n \leq t < (k_n(t)+1)\delta_n, $$

this point is easily proved considering that the equation

$$t = \mu \delta_n$$

has solution and taking $k_n(t) = \left\lfloor \mu \right\rfloor$ proves the statement above. Later the sequence

$$\varphi_n(t) = \left\{ \begin{array}{lr} k_n(t)\delta_n & 0 \leq t < n \\ n & n \leq t \leq \infty \end{array} \right.$$

is defined. For each $n \;\;\varphi_n$ is a Borel function on $[0,\infty]$, but why? Is that because for each $n$ we have $\varphi_n$ is a simple function?

Then it is stated that $$ t - \delta_n < \varphi_n(t) \leq t\;\; 0 \leq t \leq n $$ And this bit it is easy to prove by using the definition of $k_n(t)$. Almost finally it is stated that

$$ 0 \leq \varphi_1 \leq \varphi_2 \leq \ldots \leq t $$

this bit puzzles me since

$$ \begin{multline} \left\{ \begin{array}{l} t - \delta_n < \varphi_n(t) \leq t \\ t - \delta_{n-1} < \varphi_{n-1}(t) \leq t \end{array} \Rightarrow \right. \left\{ \begin{array}{l} t - \delta_n < \varphi_n(t) \leq t \\ - t \leq - \varphi_{n-1}(t) < - t + \delta_{n-1} \end{array} \right. \Rightarrow \\ -\delta_n \leq \varphi_n(t) - \varphi_{n-1}(t) \leq \delta_{n-1} \end{multline} $$ and it doesn't tell me anything...

And finally it is just stated that defining $s_n = \varphi_n \circ f$ has the required properties.

My questions:

  1. Why is the sequence $\varphi_n$ measurable (borel function in this case)?
  2. Why is the sequence $\varphi_n$ monotonic?
  3. Why is the sequence $s_n$ monotonic?

Update: Maybe I figured out 1 and 2,

  1. Since $\varphi_n$ is monotonic the counter image of any open set should be a Borelian set (union of open sets).
  2. Taking the difference $$ (\varphi_{n+1} - \varphi_n)(t) = \left\{ \begin{array}{lr} k_{n+1}(t) \delta_{n+1} - k_n(t) \delta_n & 0 \leq t < n \\ k_{n+1}(t) \delta_{n+1} - n & n \leq t < n + 1 \\ 1 & n + 1 \leq t < \infty \end{array} \right. $$

For $0 \leq t < n$ we have

$$ \begin{multline} k_{n+1}(t) \delta_{n+1} - k_n(t) \delta_n = k_{n+1}(t) \delta_{n+1} - 2 k_n(t) \delta_{n + 1} = (k_{n+1}(t) - 2k_n(t))\delta_{n+1} = 0 \end{multline} $$

The equality to $0$ follows from the fact that it must be $k_{n+1}(t) = 2k_n(t)$ Given the uniqueness of the integer the multiplied by $\delta_j$ bound $t$.

For $n \leq t < n + 1$ we have

$$ (n\delta^{-1}_n) \delta_n = n \leq t < n + 1 = ((n+1)\delta^{-1}_n) \delta_n \Rightarrow k_{n}(t) = n2^n = n \delta^{-1}_n \Rightarrow k_{n}(t)\delta_n = n \Rightarrow k_{n+1}(t) \delta_{n+1} - n = n + 1 - n = 1 $$

I can then rewrite

$$ (\varphi_{n+1} - \varphi_n)(t) = \left\{ \begin{array}{lr} 0 & 0 \leq t < n \\ 1 & n \leq t < \infty \end{array} \right. \Rightarrow 0 \leq (\varphi_{n+1} - \varphi_n)(t) \Rightarrow \varphi_n \leq \varphi_{n+1} $$

I keep trying to figure out why the sequence $s_n$ is monotonic.

  • 0
    there is some mistake in your update2017-04-30
  • 0
    Could you kindly point out where?2017-04-30
  • 0
    $n\delta_n^{-1}+1$ is not the same as $(n+1)\delta_n^{-1}$.2017-04-30

1 Answers 1

1

Answer to the first question.

The functions $\varphi_n$ are measurable because they are all simple functions that take distinct values on intervals, which are measurable.

Note that a function is not measurable merely by virtue of being simple, so the first argument you gave is incorrect.

The second argument you gave is correct: monotone functions are measurable. But, one would still like to see more details regarding why the inverse image of an open set is a union of open sets.


Answer to the second question.

You argument falls apart in two places. First, in the case $0 \leq t < n$, when you equate $(k_{n+1}(t) - 2k_n(t))\delta_{n+1}$ with $0$. Second, in the case $n \leq t < n+1$, when you equate $k_n(t)$ with $n\delta_n^{-1}$. Both these assertions are false. Try explicitly computing these values for small $n$ to see why.

To see why the $\varphi_n$'s are monotonically increasing, see what the description you gave of $(\varphi_{n+1}-\varphi_n)(t)$ is telling you.

Fix $0 \leq t < n$. Then, $k_{n}(t)\delta_n$ is the largest multiple of $2^{-n}$ that is not greater than $t$. Similarly, $k_{n+1}(t)\delta_{n+1}$ is the largest multiple of $2^{-(n+1)}$ that is not greater than $t$. But, any multiple of $2^{-n}$ is also a multiple of $2^{-(n+1)}$. So, it is clear that $k_{n+1}(t)\delta_{n+1} \geq k_{n}(t)\delta_n$. Hence, $(\varphi_{n+1}-\varphi_n)(t) \geq 0$ for $0 \leq t < n$.

Fix $n \leq t < n+1$. Then, $k_{n+1}(t)\delta_{n+1}$ is the largest multiple of $2^{-(n+1)}$ that is not greater than $t$. Note, however, that every integer is a multiple of $2^{-(n+1)}$. In particular, $k_{n+1}(t)\delta_{n+1} \geq n$ in this case, because $t \geq n$. So, $(\varphi_{n+1}-\varphi_n)(t) \geq 0$ for $n \leq t < n+1$.

And lastly, since $1 > 0$, we have that $(\varphi_{n+1}-\varphi_n)(t) \geq 0$ for $t \geq n+1$, and so $\varphi_{n+1} \geq \varphi_n$ for each $n \in \mathbb{N}$.


Answer to the third question.

Fix $x \in X$. Since $s_n := \varphi_n \circ f$, let us compare $s_{n+1}(x)$ with $s_n(x)$. $$ s_{n+1}(x) = \varphi_{n+1}(f(x)) \geq \varphi_n(f(x)) = s_n(x). $$ Thus, the monotonicity of the $\varphi_n$'s gives us the monotonicity of the $s_n$'s.

  • 0
    Hi, thank you for answering. I'm going through this proof again. First question is this https://www.desmos.com/calculator/es6gzkgdq1 the expected plot for $\varphi_n$? I guess visualizing things a bit can make my life easier.2018-08-13
  • 0
    Sorry, this one: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/el1s9xhewy2018-08-13
  • 0
    Hi, @user8469759. Yes, the second one is right :)2018-08-13
  • 0
    This graph should give the main idea behind the proof. Rudin is first proving the theorem for the identity function, and then he uses this to prove the theorem for an arbitrary function.2018-08-13
  • 0
    Sometimes these constructions still amaze me. Despite this one is a relatively simple one I think it's brilliant.2018-08-13
  • 0
    Yes! I felt the same way when I read the proof. This is what makes Rudin's books so remarkable. :)2018-08-13
  • 0
    Why does he need to define $\varphi_n(x) = n$ when $x \geq n$? Couldn't he just define $\varphi_n(x) = \lfloor x2^n \rfloor2^{-n}$? It would converge to $x$ and monotonicity etc would still be met.2018-08-13
  • 0
    But then $\varphi_n$ wouldn't be simple. We want a sequence of *simple* functions that converge monotonically to the identity.2018-08-13
  • 0
    Ah ok, it's not simple because the range isn't finite.2018-08-13