A function $f\colon\mathbb N\to\mathbb C$ is called multiplicative if $f(1)=1$ and $$\gcd(a,b)=1 \implies f(ab)=f(a)f(b).$$ It is called completely multiplicative if the equality $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ holds for any pair of positive integers $a$, $b$. (In the definition of multiplicative function we have this condition only for $a$, $b$ coprime.)
If is not difficult to show that if $f\colon\mathbb N\to\mathbb N$ is multiplicative can $g\colon\mathbb N\to\mathbb C$ is completely multiplicative, then $g\circ f$ is multiplicative. (We just notice that if $\gcd(a,b)=1$ then $g(f(ab))\overset{(*)}=g(f(a)f(b))\overset{(\triangle)}=g(f(a))g(f(b))$, where the equivality $(*)$ follows from the fact that $f$ is multiplicative and in the equality $(\triangle)$ we use that $g$ is completely multiplicative.)
What are some simple examples showing that the word completely cannot be omitted, i.e., examples of multiplicative functions $f$ and $g$ such that the composition $g\circ f$ is not multiplicative?