I wondered why the expression $$ \binom {2n}{n} $$ is always divisible by each prime p with $$ n < p \leq 2n $$
Now I wanted to proof this but I don't know where I should start...
I can rewrite the expression to: $$ \binom {2n}{n} = \frac{(2n!)}{n!\cdot(2n-n)!}=\frac{(2n)!}{n!^2}$$ but I dont think, that this will really help, so i hope that someone can help me!
Thanks! :)