The ideal solution here is highly dependent on the mathematical toolbox available to you. I present a solution here which is not too technical (easing off on calculus where possible), at the cost of a little rigor:
Claim:
$$\lim\limits_{x\to 0^+}x^m (\ln x)^n = 0, \,\text{for} \quad m,n \in \mathbb N$$
Remark: Taking $n^{th}$ roots, we note that, if we can show $x^\alpha\ln x \to0$ for all (rational) $\alpha>0$, then we have our result.
Observation: $$\lim_{x\to0^+}x^\alpha\ln x=\lim_{1/x\to0}(1/x)^\alpha\ln(1/x)=\lim_{x\to\infty}\left[-\frac{\ln x}{x^\alpha}\right]$$
Now, admittedly this is not totally trivial - it relies on the continuity of the functions as hand, as well as being able to convince yourself that we should be allowed to shift limits at $0$ to limits at infinity this way. However, once you can come to terms with this being true (perhaps luckily, it is), we're not too far from a solution.
Lemma:
$$\ln x \le x-1 < x \text{ for } x>0$$
There are many proofs of this, though in honesty, most use calculus or differentiation at some point or another. Still, this is a fairly uncontroversial inequality, so we use it to establish:
Corollary:
$$\ln\left(x^{1/m}\right)0$$
Bringing it all together:
From this, we can see that $\frac{\ln x}{x^\alpha}
Thus for sufficiently large $m$, this ratio is bounded above by a multiple of $x^{-r}$ for some positive $r$, which tends to 0.
Given that the ratio is nonnegative for $x>1$, we see that $\frac{\ln x}{x^\alpha}\to 0$ as $x\to\infty$.
Retracing our steps, we can see that our claimed inequality must be true.