I'm looking over a stats problem and there is a jump which I don't understand. It is:
$$\theta_1^{-n}(\prod_{i=1}^{n}x_i)^{1-\theta_1}=\theta_1^{-n}exp((\theta_1-1)(-\sum_{i=1}^{n}logx_i))$$
This question is about likelihood functions. We also know that $f(x|\theta)=\theta x^{\theta-1}$ for $x\epsilon(0,1)$ with $\theta>0$