Prove that for every $u\in \mathcal C^2(\bar \Omega)$ where $\Omega$ is an open and bounded subset of $\mathbb R^n$ and $\partial \Omega \in C^1\;$ the following holds for every $y\in \Omega$:
$$ u(y)=\int_{\Omega} v \Delta^2 u \, dx - \int_{\partial \Omega} \left( v \frac{\partial \Delta u}{\partial \eta}-\Delta u \frac{\partial v}{\partial \eta} + \Delta v \frac{\partial u}{\partial \eta}-u\frac{\partial \Delta v}{\partial \eta} \right) dS$$
Note: $\vec{\eta}$ is the outward unit normal vector.
To begin with, I thought to substitute $u=\Delta u$ in Green's First Identity:
$$\int_{\Omega} \Delta(\Delta u) v \, dx = -\int_{\Omega} \nabla \Delta u \cdot \nabla v \, dx + \int_{\partial \Omega} v \frac{\partial \Delta u}{\partial \eta} dS $$
After that, in order to get rid of the term $\int_{\Omega} \nabla \Delta u \nabla v \, dx $ I made use of the third Green's Identity which is: $$u(y)=-\int_{\Omega} \Phi(y-x) \Delta u(y) dy + \int_{\partial \Omega} \left( \Phi(y-x) \frac{\partial u(y)}{\partial \eta}-u(y) \frac{\partial \Phi(y-x)}{\partial \eta} \right) dS(y) $$ where $\Phi(x)$ is the fundamental solution of $\Delta u=0$. I noticed that if I replace $\Phi(x)$ with $\Delta v$ in the above identity the proof is complete.
Now in favor of this substitution I thought that $\Delta v $ could be a fundamental solution of $\Delta(\Delta v)=0 $ if and only if $\Phi(y)=\Delta v(y) $.
My question is if this assumption is enough in order to do the above. It seems quite easy and I feel I'm missing something. I would really appreciate if somebody could make this more clear to me. Hints or other solutions than this are also welcome.
Thanks in advance!