Suppose I have iid observations $X_i$ (empirical mean $\bar X_n$), drawn from a distribution with unknown mean $\mu$ and known variance $\sigma^2$. To build a confidence interval for $\mu$ I can use the central limit theorem that states:
\begin{equation} \begin{aligned} \frac{\sqrt{n}(\bar X_n - \mu)}{\sigma} \approx \mathcal{N}(0,1) \end{aligned} \end{equation}
and get the following approximation (if I am not mistaken), with $\phi$ being the quantile function of the standard normal distribution: \begin{equation} \begin{aligned} \mathbb{P}(\mu \in [\bar X_n - \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}\phi_{1-\frac{\alpha}{2}}; \bar X_n + \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}\phi_{1-\frac{\alpha}{2}} ]) \approx 1-\alpha \end{aligned} \end{equation}
I've always been told to just provide this as an answer for an interval with $1-\alpha$ confidence level. But what about the real confidence level? It must be something like $1-\alpha -\epsilon _n$, right? What about $\epsilon_n$?