I have found something very interesting in my eyes.
The following expression $$\frac{\prod\limits_{i=n+1}^{2n-1}i}{\prod\limits^{n-1}_{i=2}i}$$
(I think) always gives a natural number. Now, of course, I am interested in why this is so and I wanted to ask if someone has an approach for a proof...
Thank you :)
(And yes, I know that I should explain my proof so you can verify it, but I have no approach for an proof, so if you tell me which proof-method I should use I would try it on my own of course :) )