If $0 My attempt: If $0 then $\sin x <\cos x$ which means $\left(\sin x\right)^{\sin x}<\left(\cos x\right)^{\sin x}<\left(\cos x\right)^{\cos x}$. Am I correct. Can a more rigorous proof be given
If $0
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0Since $0<\cos x<1$ in the given interval, from $\sin x<\cos x$ you can deduce $(\cos x)^{\sin x}\color{red}{>}(\cos x)^{\cos x}$; not the same inequality as you're using. – 2017-01-02
1 Answers
I saw this solution in a textbook($103$ Problems in Trigonometry by Titu Andreescu) but i wanted a second opinion. The way the solution is it can only be answered by someone who has created the question and the solution.I will quote Titu:
Observe that the logarithmic function is concave down.
We apply Jensen's inequality to the numbers $\sin x<\cos x<\sin x+\cos x$
with weights $\lambda_{1}=\tan x$ and $\lambda_{2}=1-\tan x$(because for $0
$\log(\cos x)$
$=\log\left(\tan x\sin x+(1-\tan x)(\sin x+\cos x)\right)$
$>\tan x\log(\sin x)+(1-\tan x)\log(\sin x+\cos x)$
Since $\sin x+\cos x=\sqrt{2}\sin(x+\frac{\pi}{4})>1$ and $\tan x<1$
We can say that $\log(\cos x)>\tan x\log(\sin x)$
Multiplying both sides by $\cos x$ and then exponientating we obtain the required result.
Please suggest some other way.