This is a proof from Bartle's Text - I summed up the definitions in the bottom. What I am confused are parts (1) (meaning of "face" and "extending") and (2) (the inequality) labelled below in the proof. May someone elaborate? Thank you so much.
Theorem: If $I \subseteq \mathbb{R}^p$ is any cell then $m^{*}(I)= l(I)$.
Proof: It is clear that $m^{*}(I) \le l(I)$. Now let $(I_k)$ be a covering of $I$ such that $$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}l(I_k) \le m^*(I) + \varepsilon.$$ Let $J$ be a closed cell such that $J \subseteq I$ and $l(I) - \varepsilon < l(J)$. By the Heine-Borel Theorem there is an $m \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $J \subseteq \bigcup_{k=1}^m I_k$.
$\color{blue}{(1)} $We now divide the space $\mathbb{R}^p$ into a finite number closed intervals by extending the $(p-1)$ dimensional hyperplanes that contain a face of one of the cells $I_1, \ldots, I_m$ and of $J$. $\color{blue}{*}$ Let $K_1, \ldots, K_n$ be the distinct closed cells into which the cells (closures of the cells) $\bar{I_1}, \ldots, \bar{I_m}$ are divided by these hyperplanes; further let $J_1, \ldots, J_r$ be the closed cells which $J$ is divided.
$\color{blue}{(2)}$ Therefore, we have, $$ l(J) = \sum_{j=1}^{r} l(J_j) \le \sum_{k=1}^n l(K_k) \le \sum_{k=1}^m l(I_k) \le m^{*}(I) + \varepsilon. \color{blue}{*}$$ Hence, we are done.
My thoughts: I attempted to visualize the problem in 3D. Suppose our cells are $I_1 = (0,1] \times (0,1/2] \times [0,1]$ and $I_2 = [1/2,3/2) \times [0,1] \times [0,1]$. And we suppose $I = (1/2,1) \times (0,1) \times (0,1)$. Let $J = [1/2 + 1/16, 1 - 1/16] \times [1/16 , 1 - 1/16] \times [1/16, 1 - 1/16]$ (used $1/16$ instead of $\epsilon$ for illustration).
(1): $ \color{blue}{ \text {What exactly is happening by "extending the hyperplanes...", i.e. what are $K_1, \ldots, K_n$?} } $
My understanding is as follows. For $I_1$ in my example we generate six hyperplanes. $$H_1 = [0,0] \times \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}, \quad H_2 = [1,1] \times \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}, \ldots, \quad H_6 = \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \times [1,1] $$ and similarly for the other cells.
(2): $\color{blue}{ \text{ My problem here is how we got the line of inequalities. } } $
In regards to my interpretation of (1), $J$ is divided into disjoint intervals. I see why $l(J)= \sum_{j=1}^r l(J_j) \le \sum_{k=1}^n l(K_n)$. But I don't see how we obtain $$ \sum_{k=1}^{n}l(K_k) \le \sum_{k=1}^m l(I_k) $$ Shouldn't this be an equality (or in fact $\ge$?) As the family $\{ K_k \}$ is just a distinct representation of $\{ \bar{I_k} \} $?
If $E \subseteq \mathbb{R}^p$, then we define the outer measure of $E$ to be $$m^{*} (E) = \inf \sum_{k=1}^\infty l (I_k) $$ where the infimum is taken over all family of cells $(I_k)$ of $\mathbb{R}^p$ such that $E \subseteq \bigcup_{k=1}^{\infty} I_k$.
A cell in $\mathbb{R}^p$ is of the form $I = I_1 \times \cdots \times I_p$, where $I_k$ are bounded intervals in $\mathbb{R}$. We define $l(I) = \prod_{k=1}^p l(I_k)$, where $l(I_k)$ is length of interval in $\mathbb{R}$ (so $l((a,b))=l((a,b]) = b-a$ for example.)
A closed cell (open cells) in $\mathbb{R}^p$ is one where $I_k$ are all closed (open) bounded intervals in $\mathbb{R}$. So my three hyperplanes which satisfies the condition are