Recall that $\otimes_{n=1}^\infty \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$ is defined as the smallest $\sigma$-algebra on $\mathbb{R}^\infty$ that makes every coordinate projection measurable. Furthermore $\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^\infty)$ is the Borel $\sigma$-algebra generated by the product topology. We also know that $\otimes_{n=1}^\infty \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})=\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^\infty)$.
Furthermore let $l^2(\mathbb{N})$ be the space of square summable sequences indexed by $\mathbb{N}$. This is a Hilbert space with inner product $\langle x,y \rangle = \sum_n x_ny_n$. Let $\mathcal{B}(l^2(\mathbb{N}))$ denote the Borel sigma algebra induced by the natural metric on $l^2(\mathbb{N})$.
We may note that $l^2(\mathbb{N})\subset \mathbb{R}^\infty$, but does it hold that $ l^2(\mathbb{N})\in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^\infty)$ and $\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^\infty) \cap l^2(\mathbb{N})=\mathcal{B}(l^2(\mathbb{N}))$ ?
The reason I'm interested in this is: I have two probability measures $P,Q$ on $(l^2(\mathbb{N}),\mathcal{B}(l^2(\mathbb{N})))$ and I would like to show that $P=Q$ by (if the above holds) showing that $$ \tilde{P}:=P(\cdot \cap l^2(\mathbb{N})), \quad \text{and} \quad \tilde{Q}:=Q(\cdot \cap l^2(\mathbb{N})), $$ are identical measures on $\mathbb{R}^\infty$ (which can be done by for example looking at the finite dimensional distribution).