In Example 5. on this page (midway down the page) the author says that the definite integral
$$\int_a^b f(x) dx,$$
where $f: [a, b] \to \mathbb{R}$ can be interpreted as an integral of a connection. He says that if we set $X = [a, b]$ and let $(\mathbb{R})_{x \in X}$ be the trivial bundle over $X$ then the function $f$ induces a connection $\Gamma_f$ on this bundle by setting
$$\Gamma_f(x \to x + dx): y \to y + f(x)dx.$$ He says that the integral $\Gamma_f([a, b])$ of this connection along $[a, b]$ is the operation of translation by $\int_a^b f(x)$ in the real line.
- Is there a typo in the definition of the connection? Shouldn't the definition of $\Gamma_f$ map $y$ to $y + f'(x)dx$, not to $y + f(x)dx$?
- I don't understand why he is saying that the integral of this connection is equivalent to translation...surely the integral of the connection just outputs some arbitrary scalar, where is the notion of it representing translation coming from?
