This is a question based on a Wikipedia article on scale invariance (see the claim under the section Classical Electromagnetism).
The equation $$\frac{\partial^2\psi(x,t)}{\partial x^2}=\frac{\partial^2\psi(x,t)}{\partial t^2}\tag{1}$$ is invariant under $x,t\rightarrow \lambda x,\lambda t$. Wikipedia claims that if $\psi(x,t)$ is a solution, $\psi(\lambda x,\lambda t)$ is also a solution.
Is this claim independent of the boundary condition?
All solutions of the type $\psi(\lambda x,\lambda t)$ obtained from a particular $\psi(x,t)$, form only a subset of all possible solutions of (1) i.e., they do not exhaust all possible solutions. Am I correct?