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Fourier Transform of complicated product: $(1+x)^2 e^{-x^2/2}$

I calculate the Fourier Transform of $f(x)$ by $$\mathbb{F}(t) =\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2} \cdot e^{-ixt}dx,$$ but my result is not equal to the Mathematica result. I tried to integrate by parts it, and next do an equal with the integral above.

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    "but my result is not equale to the Mathematica result" - but you know that *Mathematica*'s normalization convention might be different from the one you're accustomed to?2011-11-20
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    Yes, but in my book and a few other sources is other (the same as Mathematica) result.2011-11-20
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    In my answer to the thread linked to above I gave one way of computing that $$\mathbb{F}(t) = \sqrt{\pi} e^{-t^2/4}:$$ Derive an ordinary differential equation (differentiate under the integral sign, integrate by parts once) and you get $\mathbb{F'}(t) = -C t \mathbb{F}(t)$ and $\mathbb{F}(0) = 0$ and solve it .2011-11-20
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    That should have been $\mathbb{F}(0) = \sqrt{\pi}$ of course.2011-11-20

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The simplest way to do this is: $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-(x^2+ixt)}dx=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-(x+it/2)^2}e^{-t^2/4}dx=e^{-t^2/4} \sqrt{\pi}$ because $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-(x+it/2)^2}dx=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-(x+it/2)^2}d(x+it/2)=\int_{-\infty+it/2}^{\infty+it/2}e^{-z^2}dz=\sqrt{\pi}$.