The question is just like the title. (For $E$ measurable and $1\le p<∞$, define $L^p(E)$ to be the collection of measurable functions $f$ for which $|f|^p$ is integrable over $E$; thus $L^1(E)$ is the collection of integrable functions.)
If $f_n→f$ in $L^p(E)$, does that imply that $(f_n)^p→f^p$ in $L^1(E)$?
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real-analysis
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1-1: This question does not show any research effort. – 2012-12-02
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2This is your 18th question on this site. To my understanding, not one of your 18 questions contains anything more than the problem statement. At the very least you could say where you found the problem or why you care about its solution. – 2012-12-02