0
$\begingroup$

Consider a function $f: \mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{R}^m \rightarrow \mathbb{R}_{\geq 0}$ continuous in the $1^{st}$ argument, locally bounded in the $2^{nd}$ one.

We consider a $\delta$-neighborhood of $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$, i.e. $\mathbb{B}(x,\delta)$ (closed ball with center $x$ and radius $\delta$), and we see the $2^{nd}$ argument as a $\delta$-dependent parameter $\theta_\delta \in \mathbb{R}^m$. We study

$$ \max_{y \in \mathbb{B}(x,\delta)} \{ f(x,\theta_\delta)-f(y,\theta_\delta) \} $$

We assume that for any $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$ we have $ \delta \mapsto f(x,\theta_\delta)-f(y,\theta_\delta) $ non-decreasing if $y \in \mathbb{B}(x,\delta)$. Therefore, for any $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$, also $\delta \mapsto \max_{y \in \mathbb{B}(x,\delta)} \{ f(x,\theta_\delta)-f(y,\theta_\delta) \}$ is non-decreasing.

Say if the following proposition is true (if not, find a counterexample).

$$ \forall \epsilon > 0 \ \exists \delta >0 \text{ such that } \max_{y \in \mathbb{B}(x,\delta)} \{ f(x,\theta_\delta)-f(y,\theta_\delta) \} < \epsilon $$

Note: the proposition would hold for fixed $\delta$-independent $\theta$ as $x \mapsto f(x,\theta)$ is continuous. I suspect the proposition is true also for $\theta_\delta$ because the smaller $\delta$ is the smaller $\max_{y \in \mathbb{B}(x,\delta)} \{ f(x,\theta_\delta)-f(y,\theta_\delta) \}$ is.

  • 0
    I don't understand "Therefore, for any $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$, also $\delta \mapsto \max_{y \in \mathbb{B}(x,\delta)} \{ f(x,\theta_\delta)-f(y,\theta_\delta) \}$ is non-decreasing". There's one positive and one negative term; one is non-decreasing in $\delta$, the other non-increasing in $\delta$; then why should the maximum be non-decreasing?2012-05-02
  • 0
    You are right: there is a typo in the question statement: for any (x,y) $\delta \mapsto f(x,\theta_\delta) - f(y,\theta_\delta)$ is non-decreasing.2012-05-02
  • 0
    A minor point: How do you know the maximum exists? Shouldn't it be the supremum?2012-05-02
  • 0
    I was thinking it exists because $y$ belongs to a compact set and the function is locally bounded. Am I wrong?2012-05-02
  • 0
    Which compact set are you referring to? Doesn't $\mathbb B(x,\delta)$ refer to the open ball about $x$ with radius $\delta$? If it doesn't, you should introduce the notation; I think that's what it usually refers to.2012-05-02
  • 0
    Of course I meant $\mathbb{B}(x,\delta)$ is the closed ball centered at $x$ with radius $\delta$. I think that such notation is usual.2012-05-02
  • 0
    Your latest edit doesn't make sense. a) In "for any $(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{B}(x,\delta)$", $x$ can't be used on the right-hand side of an expression defining the possible values of $x$. The formulation in your comment under my question doesn't have this problem. b) Now that $\delta$ is used in the definition of $x$ and $y$, what does it mean to then say that $\delta \mapsto f(x,\theta_\delta)-f(y,\theta_\delta)$ is non-decreasing? It would have to be non-decreasing for fixed $x$ and $y$, but you now made those dependent on $\delta$.2012-05-02

1 Answers 1