Suppose $f_n$ is a sequence of Lebesgue measurable functions defined on E. Suppose $f_n$ converges only on the set $E_0$ which is a subset of E. Can $E_0$ be non-measurable?
Can a sequence of (Lebesgue) measurable functions converge only on a non-measurable set?
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measure-theory
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2[No.](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/104503/a-question-concerning-a-set-connected-to-a-sequence-of-measurable-functions) – 2012-10-31