In "A Probability Path", they have an example that states that the lim inf and lim sup of [0,n/(n+1)) is equal to [0,1). I guess I don't see how [0,1) is in all the sets except a finite number of ties or how it is in an infinite number of sets. Can someone give give a demonstration of why it is so?
Limit Inf/Sup of Sequence of Set Example
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measure-theory
elementary-set-theory
limits
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0@André: I take it that we’re dealing with [this](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limit_superior_and_limit_inferior#Sequences_of_sets) here. – 2012-09-13