${f_n(z)}$ be a sequence of analytic function in a domain $D$ such that $f_n\to f$ uniformly in $D$. Then $f_n’\to f'$ uniformly in $D$.
How can I show that the above statement is true/false?
${f_n(z)}$ be a sequence of analytic function in a domain $D$ such that $f_n\to f$ uniformly in $D$. Then $f_n’\to f'$ uniformly in $D$.
How can I show that the above statement is true/false?