1
$\begingroup$

Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of functions defined on $[0,1]$. Show that if $(f_n)$ converges to zero uniformly on $[0,1]$, then for any sequence of points $(x_n)$ with $x_n \in [0,1]$ for every $n$, the sequence $f_n(x_n)$ has limit zero.

  • 0
    What have you tried so far? Where are you stuck? Kindly show your work, even if only partial.2012-01-25
  • 1
    I think I have the main idea, but I'm not quite sure of the wording. Since (fn) converges uniformly to zero for all n, the limit clearly exists, but I am not sure what reasoning can be used to show the limit is zero.2012-01-25
  • 0
    Assume not. Argue by contradiction.2012-01-25
  • 2
    For every $n$, $|f_n(x_n)| \le \sup_{x \in [0,1]} |f_n(x)|$. But the right side goes to 0 as $n \to \infty$...2012-01-25
  • 0
    You can prove, as a previous exercise, that $f_n\to f$ uniformly in $A$ if and only if the sequence of numbers $\sup_{x\in A} \vert f_n(x)-f(x)\vert$ converges to $0$. Then, look at the Nate's comment.2012-01-25

1 Answers 1