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This is a two part question, I just want to verify the following:

  1. ($f\circ h$)$\circ$($d\circ g$)$=f\circ g$ where h is the inverse of d.
  2. (($f\circ h$)$\circ$($d\circ g$))'$=$$[$($f\circ h$)'$\circ $($d\circ g$)$]$($d\circ g$)'

Thank you!

  • 1
    What does the prime represent? Function inverse? Is $h$ still the inverse of $d$ in the second example?2012-01-26
  • 0
    The ' is for taking the derivative. I was hoping #2 is true regardless of functions d,h.2012-01-26

2 Answers 2