I apologize for this naive question.
Let $\eta$ be an ordinal. Isn't the supremum of $\eta$ just $\eta+1$? If this is true, the supremum is only necessary if you conisder sets of ordinals.
I apologize for this naive question.
Let $\eta$ be an ordinal. Isn't the supremum of $\eta$ just $\eta+1$? If this is true, the supremum is only necessary if you conisder sets of ordinals.