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You have an urn that contains 10 balls numbered 1-10. They are drawn one at a time without replacement.

a.) Find the probability that the second ball drawn is the ball numbered 3. Intuitively, I know that the answer is 1/10 but I am not sure why. The probability that "the second ball is drawn" implies that there are only 9 balls left, so wouldn't the answer be 1/9?

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    You have to adjust for the fact that this is only possible if the first ball does not have the number 3.2012-01-22

3 Answers 3