You have an urn that contains 10 balls numbered 1-10. They are drawn one at a time without replacement.
a.) Find the probability that the second ball drawn is the ball numbered 3. Intuitively, I know that the answer is 1/10 but I am not sure why. The probability that "the second ball is drawn" implies that there are only 9 balls left, so wouldn't the answer be 1/9?