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Suppose over $\mathbb{Z}$ we are given an irreducible polynomial $p(x)$.

Can we say that at the very least that $p(x)$ represents a prime as $x$ runs through integers?

Thanks in advance.

  • 0
    Have you seen [this](http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Prime-GeneratingPolynomial.html)?2012-07-10
  • 0
    I could be wrong but I think the question is..."Does every irreducible polynomial over $\mathbb{Z}$ represent at least one prime?"2012-07-10

2 Answers 2