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I cannot see any steps to this problem! Surely the answer is obvious? Is there a particular law which is used to make this statement?

$$((Q \wedge ¬P) \vee (Q \wedge P)) = Q$$

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    Shouldn't it be $$((Q \wedge ¬P) \vee (Q \wedge P)) = Q$$?2012-05-07
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    It's hard to say, because you haven't said what steps are allowed. For example, if you already know that $\vee$ distributes over $\wedge$, the thing is very simple: you factor out the $Q$ from the disjuncts, obtaining $(Q\wedge(P\vee\lnot P))=Q$, etc.2012-05-07
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    MarkDominus yes you are right, I can see the answer now. $$(Q \wedge (P \vee ¬P)) = Q$$ (Distributive Law) $$(Q \wedge T) = Q$$ (Excluded Middle) $$Q = Q$$ (Identity)2012-05-07

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