I understand that this should be done by induction, but I have very limited knowledge on proof by induction. Could someone explain it in a way which also makes clear exactly what each stage of induction means and achieves?
Prove that if a set is Peano finite, then it is Dedekind finite.
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elementary-set-theory
infinity
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0what is the def. of peano finite? I assume dedekind finite is what's said here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind-infinite_set – 2012-11-17
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1A set is Peano finite if there is a bijection between the set and a natural number. It is Dedekind finite if it is not equivalent to a proper subset of itself (the same as is in the link). – 2012-11-17