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Determine whether the following pairs of statements are logically equivalent or not. Give a reason.

(i) $p \to (q \to r)$ and $(p \to q) \to r$

(ii) $p \to (q \to r)$ and $q \to (p \to r)$

Can anyone point me in the right direction for this one?

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    The "right direction" will depend on the exact framework on which you are working. Do you have a list of axioms and a set of inference rules? (Which ones?) Do you have truth tables and are truth tables considered valid proofs of equivalence?2012-04-23

3 Answers 3