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If we have an analytic function $f(z)$ in the upper half-plane, which is also continuous on the real line. If we define a new function as $$ F(z) = \left\{ \begin{array}{lr} f(z) &: z\in \mathbb U \cup \mathbb R\\ f^{\#}(z) & :z\in \mathbb L \;\;\;\;\;\;\; \end{array} \right. $$ where $\mathbb U $ is the open half-plane, and $\mathbb L $is the open lower half plane, $f^{\#}(z)=\bar{f}(\bar{z})$. Is the function $F(z)$ an entire function? Why?

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    You may want the additional hythesis that the restriction of $f$ to the real line is real-valued. Also, if this is homework, please tell it, and explain what you have done; otherwise, I'd like to know the motivation.2012-06-14
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    You can use Morera's theorem.2012-06-14
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    @D.Thomine: You mean the problem could be in the $\#$ sign? If this is the case I think we can use the definition $$ F(z) = \left\{ \begin{array}{lr} f(z) &: z\in \mathbb U \cup \mathbb R\\ f(\bar{z}) & :z\in \mathbb L \;\;\;\;\;\;\; \end{array} \right. $$ instead. (BTW, this is not a homework)2012-06-14
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    The new definition is very different, and I'm pretty sure isn't in general entire (whereas your first one was, if you add the real-on-reals condition).2012-06-14
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    @benmachine: No I don't have this information, $f$ is not necessary real-on-reals.2012-06-14
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    Unless $f$ is real-valued on $\mathbb R$, $\overline{f}(\overline{z})$ won't be the same as $f$ on $\mathbb R$. As for $f(\overline{z})$, that's not analytic if $f$ is analytic and non-constant.2012-06-14
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    @Mate: if $f$ is not real on the reals, then $F$ as in the question won't necessarily be continuous, let alone entire. Whether or not it's real on the reals, $F$ as in your comment probably won't be entire.2012-06-14
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    Without the hypothesis that $f(\mathbb{R}) \subseteq \mathbb{R}$, the desired result need not hold. For example if $f(z) = i$ for all $z$ with $\operatorname{Im}(z) \geq 0$, then $f$ is certainly analytic on its domain and continuous on the real axis, but the function $f^{\#}$ is the constant $-i$ and the resulting $F$ is not continuous on $\mathbb{C}$, let alone entire. When $f(\mathbb{R}) \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ this result is often called the Schwarz reflection principle. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schwarz_reflection_principle2012-06-14
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    @leslie townes: So could we make changes to the definition so that $F$ be entire, like deviding or multiplying $f$ and $f^{\#}$ by a factor?2012-06-14

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