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If $f_1(x)$ and $f_2(x)$ are functions from the set of positive integers to the set of positive real numbers and $f_1(x)$ and $f_2(x)$ are both $\Omega(g(x))$, is $(f_1 − f_2)(x)$ also $\Omega(g(x))$?

How do I prove/disprove this?

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