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Possible Duplicate:
If a group satisfies $x^3=1$ for all $x$, is it necessarily abelian?

I tried to prove the following. I don't know if the result is true or if I need more hypotheses. However, I don't have any counterexamples.

Prove that if $G$ is a group such that $\forall x\in G$ we have that $x^3=e$ where $e$ is the identity then $G$ is abelian.

Please if the result is true, I'd appreciate a before giving me an answer :D

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    Do you mean: prove that if G is a group, then $\forall x \in G$, $x^3 = e$?2012-08-28
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    I don't understand the reason for the downvote. This is a perfectly reasonable question, and it is clear that OP has come up with the question himself. It is just unfortunate that the question had been asked already. Surely this sort of questioning attitude should be encouraged!? No?...2012-08-29
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    (While if the reason is that the question is somehow "unclear", then...[editing is encouraged](http://math.stackexchange.com/faq#editing)!)2012-08-29

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