Could someone point out what is wrong with this equality? Assume that $\mathbf{F}$ is continuous (and hence, its partial derivatives).
$$\begin{align} \oint \mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s} & =^\text{by Stokes} \iint_S \nabla \times \mathbf{F} \cdot d\mathbf{S} \\ &=^\text{by Div} \iiint_V \nabla\cdot( \nabla \times \mathbf{F} ) \, dV \\ &=\iiint_V 0 \,dV \\ &=0\\ &\implies \oint \mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}= 0 \; \forall \mathbf{F} \end{align}$$
Since we assumed $\mathbf{F}$ and its partials are all continuous. But obviously this is wrong if $\mathbf{F}$ is non-conservative. But everything seems to agree. What went wrong?
EDIT. For a refinement of the problem. Let me specifically state that $S$ is a closed surface with a boundary curve that is also closed. So $V$ here is the volume of that surface and since $S$ is closed it has a volume