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Is is true that $$ z \in \mathbb{R}^n, \forall u,v \in \mathbb{R}^n, \langle u,z\rangle = \langle v,z\rangle \implies u = v $$ i.e. if two inner products with fixed vector $ z $ are equal so that $ u $ and $ v $ are equals.

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    Why don't you use a "cross" to denote the cross product? i.e $u \times z$ instead of $$. It's not a suggestion ; I'm really wondering why you do that.2012-10-21
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    And a more subtle question: why $$ instead of $\langle u,z \rangle$? ;-)2012-10-22

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