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This is a homework problem for algebraic number theory but I'm having trouble getting started. Do I use induction in general, or show this holds for $p \equiv 1,3$ (mod 4)?

Any help would be appreciated!

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    Hint: do you have a square root of 2 available? [Clearly you are done if you have a fourth root of -1 to hand]2012-11-12
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    Mark's hint is on exactly the right path, but it's worth asking: what would make you even think to use induction on this problem? What would you induct over?2012-11-12
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    @StevenStadnicki I think he wants to use Newton approximation / Hensel lemma, i.e. stepping from $\mod p^n$ to $\mod p^{n+1}$.2012-11-12
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    @HagenvonEitzen Ahhh, okay, that makes a lot more sense. I'd been thinking about stepping from one prime to the next, which seemed crazy on the face of it.2012-11-12

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