Let $f,g$ be two continuous functions with period$=1$.
Are the Fourier coefficients of $f*g$ are given by the products $f(n)g(n)$ (of the $n$-th coefficient in each series)?
Thanks!
Let $f,g$ be two continuous functions with period$=1$.
Are the Fourier coefficients of $f*g$ are given by the products $f(n)g(n)$ (of the $n$-th coefficient in each series)?
Thanks!