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Suppose we have the equation:

x=1 now, multiplying L.H.S and R.H.S with 'x' I get;

x2=x

This equation has the roots x=0 and x=1 now if I again multiply with 'x' I get;

x3=x2

This equation has the roots x=0 and x=0 and x=1.

I understand that if x is equal to 0 then repeatedly multiplying with x will give me solutions but why can't x be equal to 1?? for if I continue multiplying with 1 my equation remains correct ???

  • 2
    $0\times x=0\times y$ does not mean that $x=y$...2012-04-19
  • 0
    Well multiplying by 0 somehow mutitliates the equation2012-04-19
  • 1
    The title does not reflect the question.2012-04-19

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