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If $\sqrt{n} (X_n - \beta) \overset{d}{\to} N(0, \Sigma)$ is it the case that $X_n \overset{p}{\to} \beta$?

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    Your title seems to be missing a word. And what is $\beta$ supposed to be?2012-10-06
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    Also, what is the mode of convergence in $X_n \to \beta$? You originally wrote $\to^p$ which Michael Hardy edited to $\overset{d}{\to}$. Did you mean convergence in probability? I edited it to $\overset{p}{\to}$; please verify that this is what you meant.2012-10-06
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    I've deleted my answer. Maybe later I'll do some further work to make it complete.2012-10-11

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It is.

Fix some $x\gt0$ and, for every $n$, let $A_n=[\|X_n-\beta\|\geqslant x]$. Then the task is to show that $$ \lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\mathbb P(A_n)=0. $$ For every $t\geqslant0$, there exists some finite $N_t$ such that $A_n\subseteq [\sqrt{n}\|X_n-\beta\|\geqslant t]$ for every $n\geqslant N_t$ (choose any $N_t\geqslant (t/x)^2$). Hence $\mathbb P(A_n)\leqslant\mathbb P(\sqrt{n}\|X_n-\beta\|\geqslant t)$ for every $n\geqslant N_t$.

By hypothesis, $\mathbb P(\sqrt{n}\|X_n-\beta\|\geqslant t)\to\mathbb P(\|Y\|\geqslant t)$ when $n\to\infty$, where $Y$ is normal, hence $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}\mathbb P(A_n)\leqslant\mathbb P(\|Y\|\geqslant t)$. Since this inequality holds for every $t\geqslant0$ and $\inf\limits_{t\geqslant0}\mathbb P(\|Y\|\geqslant t)=0$, one sees that $\limsup\limits_{n\to\infty}\mathbb P(A_n)\leqslant0$, that is, $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\mathbb P(A_n)=0$.

This proves that $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\mathbb P(\|X_n-\beta\|\geqslant x)=0$, for every $x\gt0$. Hence $X_n\to\beta$ in probability.

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    This is the same as what I posted except with a whole lot more notation.2012-10-06
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    @MichaelHardy Do you really think so? I understand you assumed that every $X_n$ is normal (and even that every $\sqrt{n}(X_n-\beta)$ is $N(0,\Sigma)$...), I do not.2012-10-06
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    I see: there's a gap in my argument. (Of course, if one assumes $X_n$ is normal, then, given the other information, it follows that $\sqrt{n}(X_n-\beta)\sim N(0,\Sigma)$.)2012-10-07
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    @MichaelHardy Even that is not true, each $X_n$ could be such that $\sqrt{n}(X_n-\beta)\sim N(M_n,\Sigma_n)$ with $M_n\to0$ and $\Sigma_n\to\Sigma$.2012-10-11