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My Teacher wants us to argue that this equation below is true. I am just curious how I would actually explain this? I mean I understand how its true but how can I argue this?

$$\lim_{\theta\rightarrow 0^+}\frac{\cos\frac{1}{\theta}\sin\theta-\theta\cos\frac{1}{\theta}}{\theta} = 0$$

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    There is no equation here.2012-06-24
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    What do you want to argue? Do you want to argue that $$\lim_{\theta \to 0^+} \dfrac{\cos(1/\theta) \sin(\theta) - \theta \cos(1/\theta)}{\theta} = 0?$$2012-06-24
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    Thats what the problem asked which i dont understand2012-06-25
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    I guess he wants us to argue that the limit is 0 as it approaches from the right?2012-06-25
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    If the problem is to show that the limit is zero, can you please edit that into the question? As it stands, you haven't given an equation, so you haven't asked a question.2012-06-25
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    Okay i added it2012-06-25
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    @soniccool: I don't understand "u understand how its true": how do you understand that? Also, explaining a little of what you know about limits, and what you've tried already, would be useful.2012-06-25

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