Suppose over $\mathbb{Z}$ we are given an irreducible polynomial $p(x)$.
Can we say that at the very least that $p(x)$ represents a prime as $x$ runs through integers?
Thanks in advance.
Suppose over $\mathbb{Z}$ we are given an irreducible polynomial $p(x)$.
Can we say that at the very least that $p(x)$ represents a prime as $x$ runs through integers?
Thanks in advance.