I'm trying to understand why the answer of this question is $-\infty$. The question is $$ \lim_{x \to 1+} \frac{x-1}{\sqrt{2x-x^2}-1} $$
And in my last step I have $\lim_{x \to 1+} \frac{\sqrt{2x-x^2}}{1-x}$. If I plug the 1+ in the equation I get $\sqrt{2(1)-(1)^2}/(1-1)$ and so, I have $\sqrt 1/0$. Wolfram alpha says that the answer is $-\infty$.