I cannot see any steps to this problem! Surely the answer is obvious? Is there a particular law which is used to make this statement?
$$((Q \wedge ¬P) \vee (Q \wedge P)) = Q$$
I cannot see any steps to this problem! Surely the answer is obvious? Is there a particular law which is used to make this statement?
$$((Q \wedge ¬P) \vee (Q \wedge P)) = Q$$