$\exists x \forall y P(x,y) \equiv \forall y \exists x P(x,y)$
I was told they were not, but I don't see how it can be true.
$\exists x \forall y P(x,y) \equiv \forall y \exists x P(x,y)$
I was told they were not, but I don't see how it can be true.