Why does: $$\iint_D \frac{x^2}{a^2} \:dx\:dy = \iint_D \frac{y^2}{b^2} \:dx\:dy,$$ Where: $$D:\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}\leq 1$$
Calc Homework Question
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calculus