$$B \cap C \subseteq A \implies (C-A) \cap (B-A) = \varnothing.$$
I don't think this is true because B and neither C are necessarily a subset of A. Only B intercept C is a subset of A.
$$B \cap C \subseteq A \implies (C-A) \cap (B-A) = \varnothing.$$
I don't think this is true because B and neither C are necessarily a subset of A. Only B intercept C is a subset of A.