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Assume $\{B_t:t\ge0\}$ be a brownian motion process. Is $B_s-\frac{s}{t}B_t$ and $B_t$ independent given that ($s\le t$)

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    Why, Oh why does this question have 4 upvotes? Have you made attempts to solve this yourself? Where do you get stuck? What level is this? Masters? The more context you provide the better answer you will get from others.2012-12-03
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    @SimonHayward On MSE, **ANYTHING** can garner upvotes (and I agree with everything you wrote in your comment).2012-12-03

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