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I'm trying to understand convergence in probability and have a specific problem; how do you show that the sample mean of n random variables $(X_k)$, each of which is the mean of $Y_{k-1}$ through $Y_{k+1}$ random variables $(Y_k\sim N(0,10))$, converges in probability to $0$ as $n$ approaches infinity? I think it's quite obvious that it DOES, but I don't know how to show it...

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    What's the relation between $k$ and $n$?2012-12-07
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    k = 1, 2, 3, ... , n2012-12-07

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