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$\begingroup$

Might be simple, but i don't get it. Why is the integral in the last line approximately equal to $n(\varphi(\frac{-1}{2n}) - \varphi(\frac{1}{2n}))$?

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    Please mention [the name of the book](http://books.google.com/books?hl=en&id=T7vEOGGDCh4C&pg=PA17) the next time you ask about something you see in a book...2012-07-16
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    it is taken from Robert Stichartz, A Guide to Distribution Theory and Fourier Transforms, page 17.2012-07-16

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