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If two pairs of random variables $(X,Y)$ and $(U,V)$ have the same joint pdf $f_{X,Y}(x,y)=f_{U,V}(x,y)$, can we conclude that $(X,Y)=(U,V)$?

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    You can conclude that the are identically *distributed*, which is not quite the same as saying they are *identical*.2012-04-22

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