0
$\begingroup$

A subset $S$ of a topological space $X$ is called semi-open if there exists an open set $O$ such that $O \subset S \subset \mbox{cl}O$ where by $\mbox{cl}O$ I mean the closure of the set $O$.

We can define semi-open equivalently: A subset $S$ of a topological space $X$ is called semi-open if $S\subset \mbox{cl}(\mbox{int}S)$. Where $\mbox{int}S$ is the interior of the set $S$.

My question is

If $\{A_i\}$ is a locally finite family of semi-open sets in a topological space $X$ and if $\{B_i\}$ is a locally finite family of semi-open sets in a topological space $Y$

Is $\{A_i \times B_i\}$ a locally finite family of semi-open sets in the product space $X\times Y$?

  • 4
    Hi x and y, you seem to be new here. For some basic information about writing math at this site see e.g. [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/5020/), [here](http://meta.stackexchange.com/a/70559/155238), [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/1773/) and [here](http://math.stackexchange.com/editing-help#latex). You may find that better formatted questions lead to more responses!2012-12-19
  • 0
    Correct me if I'm being too naive, but it seems that the question is trivial. Indeed, local finiteness is trivial straight from definition. Now assuming that $X \times Y$ is taken with product topology, semi-openess should also be trivial from definition, since open sets in $X\times Y$ are of the form $U\times V$ where $U$ and $V$ are open in $X$ and $Y$, respectively. What is the catch?2012-12-19

1 Answers 1