In a paper there is a lemma:
Let $G= \langle a,b \rangle$ be a finite cyclic group. Then $G=\langle ab^n \rangle$ for some integer $n$.
The proof is omitted because it's "straightforward" but I'm not able to proof it. How does this work?
In a paper there is a lemma:
Let $G= \langle a,b \rangle$ be a finite cyclic group. Then $G=\langle ab^n \rangle$ for some integer $n$.
The proof is omitted because it's "straightforward" but I'm not able to proof it. How does this work?