Suppose $$ F(a)=0, F(b)=0, a$F''(x)<0$ for $a
Do we have $F(x) > 0$ for $a
Can you tell me an existing theorem that I can use in a paper to obtain the conclusion? I think there should be one, but I can't remember.
Suppose $$ F(a)=0, F(b)=0, a$F''(x)<0$ for $a
Do we have $F(x) > 0$ for $a
Can you tell me an existing theorem that I can use in a paper to obtain the conclusion? I think there should be one, but I can't remember.