If we have $n$ consecutive integers, then one of these integers is divisible by $n$. Prove the above statement.
Prove that one of $n$ consecutive integers must be divisible by $n$
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elementary-number-theory
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0Do you mean consecutive *non-zero* integers? Since, for example, there is no $x \in \{0, 1, \ldots, n-1 \}$ such that $n \mid x.$ – 2012-04-01
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8@J.D. Obviously $n\mid 0$. – 2012-04-01
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1@MartinSleziak silly me! – 2012-04-01