Can we say that
$$E \left(\frac{n}{n-1}X \right) = E(X)$$
because $n/(n-1)$ is basically equal to 1. Or can we not say this? I am just factoring out the n/(n-1).
$n$ is the sample size.
Can we say that
$$E \left(\frac{n}{n-1}X \right) = E(X)$$
because $n/(n-1)$ is basically equal to 1. Or can we not say this? I am just factoring out the n/(n-1).
$n$ is the sample size.