If $\gcd(a,b)=1$, then $\gcd(a^n,b^n)=1$
This seems clear, but I don't know how to prove this..
I was trying to show this by induction such that if $a^{n+1}$ = $rs$ and $b^{n+1}$ = $rt$, then $s,t$ are divisible by $a,b$ respectively, but i think this is a wrong way..