Is it true that "an infinite product of entire functions $\{ f_{n}(z) \}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ is again an entire function"?
$$\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}f_{n}(z)$$ (entire function is a function which is analytic in the complex plane).
Is it true that "an infinite product of entire functions $\{ f_{n}(z) \}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ is again an entire function"?
$$\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}f_{n}(z)$$ (entire function is a function which is analytic in the complex plane).