Question on theory: If $\lim_{x\to a^+}F(x)=L$ and $\lim_{x\to a^-}F(x)$ doesn't exist, then does the $\lim_{x\to a}F(x)$ exists and is $L$?
Thanks.
Question on theory: If $\lim_{x\to a^+}F(x)=L$ and $\lim_{x\to a^-}F(x)$ doesn't exist, then does the $\lim_{x\to a}F(x)$ exists and is $L$?
Thanks.