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If we have $n$ consecutive integers, then one of these integers is divisible by $n$. Prove the above statement.

  • 0
    Do you mean consecutive *non-zero* integers? Since, for example, there is no $x \in \{0, 1, \ldots, n-1 \}$ such that $n \mid x.$2012-04-01
  • 8
    @J.D. Obviously $n\mid 0$.2012-04-01
  • 1
    @MartinSleziak silly me!2012-04-01

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