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1-Let $f_1,f_2\in\mathbb{Z}[X]$ be two different irreducible monic polynomials. Is it true that for almost all primes $p$ (that is, for all but a finite number of primes), the polynomials $\bar{f}_1$ and $\bar{f}_2$ have no common roots in $\mathbb{F}_p$? (here $\bar{f}$ means reduction modulo $p$).

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