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I have this confusion related to palindrome language. I have found it being mentioned if a language L is equal to its reverse, it is a palindrome language.

But lets say

L = {aaab, baaa}

Then $L^R= \{baaa,aaab\}$

Definitely,

L = $L^R$ in this case

But the language isn't palindrome isn't it. Any insights?

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    Why isn't it? Do you just mean that each word is not a palindrome?2012-09-13
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    If so, it just depends on the definition of a language being palindromic. The definition you have is not the same as saying every word in $L$ is a palindrome,2012-09-13

2 Answers 2