Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of functions defined on $[0,1]$. Show that if $(f_n)$ converges to zero uniformly on $[0,1]$, then for any sequence of points $(x_n)$ with $x_n \in [0,1]$ for every $n$, the sequence $f_n(x_n)$ has limit zero.
Show a function converges to 0 uniformly on [0,1]?
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real-analysis
limits
convergence
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0What have you tried so far? Where are you stuck? Kindly show your work, even if only partial. – 2012-01-25
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1I think I have the main idea, but I'm not quite sure of the wording. Since (fn) converges uniformly to zero for all n, the limit clearly exists, but I am not sure what reasoning can be used to show the limit is zero. – 2012-01-25
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0Assume not. Argue by contradiction. – 2012-01-25
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2For every $n$, $|f_n(x_n)| \le \sup_{x \in [0,1]} |f_n(x)|$. But the right side goes to 0 as $n \to \infty$... – 2012-01-25
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0You can prove, as a previous exercise, that $f_n\to f$ uniformly in $A$ if and only if the sequence of numbers $\sup_{x\in A} \vert f_n(x)-f(x)\vert$ converges to $0$. Then, look at the Nate's comment. – 2012-01-25