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$\begingroup$

Question is pretty much explained in the title. My inclination is to say "yes", but I'm unsure.

Thanks in advance!

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    Sure; pretty much by definition, $r^{p/q}$ is a root of the polynomial $x^q = r^p$.2012-01-30
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    Makes sense. Thanks!2012-01-30

1 Answers 1

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Yes. $\displaystyle \left( \frac{a}{b}\right) ^{\frac{p}{q}}$ is a root of $\displaystyle b^p x^q - a^p = 0$.

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    Oh, Qiaochu is so speedy.2012-01-30