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While reading a proof i came across this step which i could not understand. The chunk below is part of bigger expression, but in the interest of reducing noise i am just posting the sub expression if needed please let me know and i'll post the full expression.

$$\left| \dfrac {1} {n\left( c+n-1\right) }\right| =\frac1{n^2}\left| 1-\dfrac {c-1} {n}+O\left( \dfrac {1} {n^{2}}\right) \right| $$

What result is being used to accomplish this ?

Edit: $\left| \dfrac {\left( a+n-1\right) \left( b+n-1\right) } {n\left( c+n-1\right) }\right| = \left| 1+\dfrac {a-1} {n}\right| \left| 1+\dfrac {b-1} {n}\right|\left| 1-\dfrac {c-1} {n}+O\left( \dfrac {1} {n^{2}}\right) \right| $

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    You've blocked too much noise. There should be a $1/n$ in factor of the RHS.2012-03-02
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    thanks i 'll edit it in a sec2012-03-02
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    You did edit, but you didn't fix the error. There should still be factor of $1/n$ in the first equation.2012-03-02
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    That's not true it does n't have a factor of $1/n$ in the RHS. i have posted the full expression as printed in the book.2012-03-02
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    @joriki Actually come to think of it you could be possibly right. This is part of the proof of convergence of a hyper geometric series as n goes to infinity, so it is possible the authors omitted that $1/n$ expression , but i find this reasoning a little unlikely as then why would they bother with an $O\left( \dfrac {1} {n^{2}}\right) $ expression.2012-03-02
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    You have two contradictory equations, and I was under the impression that the second, correct one is the one given by the authors. There's nothing wrong with that one; I was merely pointing out that the first one is still as wrong as it was before.2012-03-02
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    @joriki, i thought i got the correct sub expression out, see i tried reasoning to get this subexpression as following. Divide the numerator of LHS by n which exists in the denominator of LHS by doing this we get the first two absolute value terms and i am left with the equation i posted. Ok i can see my mistake i ended up with n^2. Thanks for your help2012-03-02
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    Now you've made it worse. The factor of $1/n$ was missing on the other side. You can see this either by understanding André's answer, or by thinking about what inverse power of $n$ the two sides fall of with as $n$ goes to infinity.2012-03-03
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    I fixed the error since it seemed like you weren't going to do it and it's better not to have wrong equations sitting around.2012-03-06
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    @joriki Thanks mate.2012-03-06

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Divide the top by $n^2$, simplifying as per the right-hand side. Divide the bottom by $n^2$. We want to study the behaviour of $$\frac{1}{1+\frac{c-1}{n}}$$ for $n$ large. Temporarily, let $\frac{c-1}{n}=x$. Note that $\frac{1}{1+x}$ has the familiar power series expansion $$\frac{1}{1+x}= 1-x+x^2-x^3+ x^4-x^5+\cdots.$$

Thus $\dfrac{1}{1+x}=1-x +O(x^2)$, which is exactly what you need.

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    @Hardy: You are very welcome. There was a typo at the end, now fixed.2012-03-02