This may be a dumb question, but if $f(n)\in O(g(n))$ can $g(n)\in O(f(n))$? I can think of a few counter examples, like $n\in O(n^2)$ and obviously $n^2\notin O(n)$, but one counter example doesn't deny the existence of one case where it is true. Is this true or false? And how can I prove it either way?
Thanks!!