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The question I've encountered reading a textbook is as follows:

Show that if $n \in \mathbb{Z}_+$ and $a, b\in\mathbb{Z}$ have $(a,n)=(b,n) = (\mathrm{ord}_na,\mathrm{ord}_nb)=1$ then $\mathrm{ord}_n(ab) = (\mathrm{ord}_na)(\mathrm{ord}_nb)$

I appreciate any help. Thanks.

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    Thank you Arturo for editing this up nicely!2012-03-18
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    Welcome to math.SE: since you are fairly new, I wanted to let you know a few things about the site. In order to get the best possible answers, it is helpful if you say in what context you encountered the problem, and what your thoughts on it are so far; this will prevent people from telling you things you already know, and help them write their answers at an appropriate level. Also, many find the use of imperative ("Find", "Show") to be rude when asking for help; please consider rewriting your post.2012-03-18
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    Requests belong in the body, not the title.2012-03-19

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