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In classical mechanics we often use the relation $a=v(dv/dx)$ to help solve differential equations. I assume when we write $dv/dx$, we really mean $dV/dx$, where $V$ is a function defined so that $V(x(t))=v(t)$. But then $V$ is not really a well defined function, because a particle can pass through a point more than once, with a different velocity each time. I assume the answer has something to do with the implicit function theorem, which I haven't really studied, but I understand that we can locally treat $V$ as a function of $x$. But then why don't we run into issues treating this as a "global" expression?

Edit: I understand the heuristic use of the chain rule: $a=(dv/dx)(dx/dt)$. But it seems to me that the term $dv/dx$ only makes sense "locally." Yet when we use $a=(dv/dx)(dx/dt)$ to solve, say, the equation of motion of the simple pendulum as an elliptic integral, we end up with an expression valid for all $t$, not just "locally". Why does everything work out?

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    http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/15418/why-does-acceleration-v-fracdvdx2012-08-12
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    This doesn't really answer my question, I edited to make it clearer what I am asking.2012-08-12
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    I would guess that implicit in the context of the problem is some vector field $V: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$, (or more likely, some differentiable manifold) that encapsulates the dynamics of the system under study. Then $x$ is a flow curve of this system, ie, $\dot{x}(t) = V(x(t))$.2012-08-12
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    I'm unfamiliar with ODE theory, is it possible to illustrate what this would mean for a specific example?2012-08-14

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