If I want to find $P(A \cap B)$, is it $1-P(A^\complement \cap B^\complement)$ or $1-P(A \cap B)^\complement$?
Probability - Finding opposite of complement
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0A *compliment* is a friendly remark. The set of elements not contained in a set is its *complement*. – 2012-10-13
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0So it is! Fixed. Thanks. – 2012-10-13
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0$P(A \cap B)^\complement$ doesn't make sense, $P(A \cap B)$ is a real number from $[0,1]$. – 2012-10-13
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0A Venn diagram will let you quickly identify $A^c\cap B^c$ and $(A\cap B)^c$ visually. Then you can *see* that $1-P((A\cap B)^c)$ is right, and also *see* why the other is in general not right. – 2012-10-13