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I ran across this integral and have not been able to evaluate it.

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x\ln(\sin(x))\ln(\cos(x))dx=\frac{{\pi}^{2}\ln^{2}(2)}{8}-\frac{{\pi}^{4}}{192}$

I had some ideas. Perhaps some how arrive at $\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2k+1)^{4}}=\frac{{\pi}^{4}}{192}$.

and $\displaystyle \ln(2)\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x\ln(2)dx=\frac{{\pi}^{2}\ln^{2}(2)}{8}$

by using the identity $\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{x\cos(2kx)}{k}=-x\ln(\sin(x))-x\ln(2)$

and/or $\displaystyle \ln(\cos(x))=-\ln(2)-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{k}\cos(2kx)}{k}$

I have used the first one to evaluate $\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}x\ln(\sin(x))dx$, so I thought perhaps it could be used in some manner here.

I see some familiar things in the solution, but how to get there?.

Does anyone have any clever ideas?.

Thanks.

3 Answers 3