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How would you show that $p(x)= \sum\limits_{i=0}^n b_i(x-c)^i$ is equivalent to $p(x)=\sum\limits_{i=0}^n a_ix^i$ by expressing the $a_i$ in terms of $b_i$ and $c$?

Also we know that the polynomial $p$ in $P_n$ that interpolates $n+1$ distinct points is unique.

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    I really don't understand what are you asking2012-04-07

3 Answers 3