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Okay I was asked to make a conjecture about cancellation laws for function composition. I figured it would go something like "For all sets $A$ and functions $g: A \rightarrow B$ and $h: A \rightarrow B$, $f \circ g = f \circ h$ implies that $g=h$."

I'm pretty sure $g=h$ isn't always true, but is there a property of $f$ that makes this true?

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    HINT: Consider the properties of injectivity and surjectivity.2012-11-14

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