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This is $\bar{\partial}$-Poincaré lemma: Given a holomorphic funtion $f:U\subset \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$ ,locally on $U$ there is a holomorphic function $g$ such that : $$\frac{\partial g}{\partial \bar z}=f$$

The author says that this is a local statement so we may assume $f$ with compact support and defined on the whole plane $\mathbb{C}$, my question is why she says that... thanks.

*Added*

$f,g$ are suppose to be $C^k$ not holomorphic, by definition $$\frac{\partial g}{\partial \bar z}=0$$ if $g$ were holomorphic...

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    What book is this from? It would be helpful if you gave the title and page number so we could see the precise statement and surrounding discussion.2012-06-09
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    It is Voisin's book Hodge theory and complex algebraic geometry, p.35, theorem 1.28.2012-06-09
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    Just as a general note, you should be aware the author is a "she," not a "he."2012-06-09
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    I fixed it , thanks.2012-06-09
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    Dear Jr., There is something strange in your statement: if $g$ were truly holomorphic, then $\partial g/\partial \bar{z}$ would equal $0$ (this is the Cauchy--Riemann equations). So the $g$ you are looking for should probably not be holomorphic. And it seems likely to me that $f$ should not be required to be holomorphic either, since a compactly supported holomorphic function also necessarily vanishes. Regards,2012-06-09
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    I fixed the wrong statement...now the question does make sense...2012-06-09
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    @MattE $f,g$ are $C^k$, could you help me?2012-06-09
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    Is my response still not clear? You can respond under my post to let me know what is still making you uncomfortable.2012-06-09

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