Let $x,y$ be 2 variables.
When then is ${dx\over dy }= {1\over {dy\over dx}}$? I guess it is true for total derivatives, but am not entirely sure.
What about if the derivatives are only partial derivatives?
Many thanks.
Let $x,y$ be 2 variables.
When then is ${dx\over dy }= {1\over {dy\over dx}}$? I guess it is true for total derivatives, but am not entirely sure.
What about if the derivatives are only partial derivatives?
Many thanks.