I know that the standard way of proving that the set of all countable ordinals is uncountable is by stating that if the set is countable, then it incurs Burali-Forti paradox.
Is there other ways of proving this?
I know that the standard way of proving that the set of all countable ordinals is uncountable is by stating that if the set is countable, then it incurs Burali-Forti paradox.
Is there other ways of proving this?