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The wiki entry on the Poincaré-Hopf theorem claims that it "relies heavily on integral, and, in particular, Stokes' theorem". However, in the sketch of proof given there which is more or less the one in Milnor's Topology from the Differentiable Viewpoint there is no integration.

Does the proof become easier by using Stokes' theorem? Is there a good reference?

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    Do you mean the WikiPEDIA article?2012-04-24
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    @t.b. Thanks for including the link2012-04-24
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    That wasn't me, I only fixed some typos :) You can see what was changed by whom by clicking on [edited *x time* ago](http://math.stackexchange.com/posts/136250/revisions) above the last editor's name.2012-04-24

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