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I am trying to determine for which p > 0 the improper integral $\int_{0}^{1}dx/x^p$ converges. The first step I have taken for these improper integrals was to set them in a form of a limit, but I am having a hard time doing this... Can anybody help?

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    http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/33637/for-1p2-prove-the-p-series-is-convergent-without-concerned-with-integral-an2011-12-05

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