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I am trying to follow along on this proof of the Arithmetic-geometric mean inequality, but I pretty much crashed at a couple steps.

  • If $a_1 \leq G \leq a_n$, then why is it that $a_1 + a_n \geq \frac{a_1a_n}{G}+ G$?

  • Why do we remove $a_1$ in the induction hypothesis and put in $\frac{a_1a_n}{G}$ ?

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    Yo thanks for the edit dawg2011-05-09
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    I'm neither a "Yo" nor a "dawg".2011-05-09
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    LOL yo is a greeting and dawg is just a term of endearment mang. I'm thanking you for hookin a brotha up with an edit that made my math look supa dope!2011-05-09
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    And I'm telling you that I don't find your terms of endearment particularly appealing. Kindly show your appreciation by refraining from such expressions when addressing me, or by not addressing me at all in the future. It's not funny, it's not cute, and I don't find it appreciative.2011-05-09
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    Okay, sorry about that. I will keep my slang out of this website.2011-05-09

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