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For $a > 0$, I need to find the derivatives of $F(x) = \int\nolimits_{1}^{x}\frac{dt}{t}$ and of $G(x) = \int_{a}^{ax}\frac{dt}{t}$, $x\in \left ( 0,\infty \right )$ and use them to prove that $G(x) = F(x)$ for all $x > 0$.

I am having a hard time imaging how the final statement is true in the first place... Could someone help me imagine/picture this?

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    (Travis, check out my latest edit, by clicking "[xxx] minutes ago" next to "last edited by The Chaz". It's subtle, but you might find that expressing problems without the imperative case is a more diplomatic approach in this community. Welcome, by the way!)2011-11-21
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    @TheChaz Thank you. I should have known this first before you told me sorry.2011-11-22

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