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Can we find a closed form for this definite integral: $$ \int\nolimits_{- \infty}^{\infty} \frac{\exp\left(-(a+bx)^2\right)}{1+\exp(x)}\mathrm dx $$

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    Please be sure to put put the entire problem in the body of the message. Also, if you right-click on the integral, and select "view source", you can see the $\TeX$ code.2011-09-23
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    Chao: Did you make this question up yourself or did you get it from somewhere?2011-09-24
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    I got this integral when I was trying to calculate the mean of a random variable.2011-09-27

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