Do asymmetric random walks also return to the origin infinitely?
Do asymmetric random walks also return to the origin infinitely?
4
$\begingroup$
probability
stochastic-processes
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0No they do not. – 2011-05-03
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0Why not? Presumably because `rand({0,1})` doesn't converge? – 2011-05-03
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0I'm writing out a proof for this, and I"m getting that $\sum f_n $ doesn't converge. – 2011-05-03