It seems to be the case that for any integer $x > 1 $, we have $ x \leq 2^{\pi(x)} $
I'm not sure whether this is obviously true, annoyingly false or difficult to prove. I'm hoping it's the former, and that I'm just being dim. I'm thinking along the lines of prime factorisation of $x$, but I can't see it. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks