My textbook says that: $$ \frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}=\left(1+\frac{1}{1}\right)\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)^2\cdots\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n Edit: How do you show that $$ \frac{(n+1)^n}{n!}=\left(1+\frac{1}{1}\right)\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)^2\cdots\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n $$
Inequality understanding
5
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real-analysis
inequality