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Can we prove that every entire one-to-one function is linear?

  • 1
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Picard_theorem (which is overkill if this is homework or something)2011-03-29
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    Maybe you can use the [Weierstrass Factorization Theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weierstrass_factorization_theorem#The_Weierstrass_factorization_theorem)?2011-03-29
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    By 1-1, do you mean injective or bijective?2011-03-29
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    By the way... you should edit the question title, Petey, to remove the ugly typo!2011-03-29
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    @Arturo: you should let OPs do *some* of the fixing! It is a very instructive activity :)2011-03-29
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    @Mariano: But it *bugs* me so...2011-03-29
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    I know :) ${}{}$2011-03-29
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    See also http://math.stackexchange.com/q/1686292012-07-09

6 Answers 6