$\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^s}$ only converges to $\zeta(s)$ if $\text{Re}(s) > 1$.
Why should analytically continuing to $\zeta(-1)$ give the right answer?
$\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^s}$ only converges to $\zeta(s)$ if $\text{Re}(s) > 1$.
Why should analytically continuing to $\zeta(-1)$ give the right answer?