Hey guys, I'm asked to show the following arguments are valid:
1) $p\rightarrow q$
2) $(q\lor r)\land (\lnot (q\land r))$
Therefore:
3) $\lnot q\rightarrow (\lnot p\land r)$
I know you need to use the rules of inference like modus ponens/converse fallacy but I'm confused because it doesn't look like any of the forms I've learned about?
Thanks
[Edit: corrected parentheses in line 3]