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  1. Suppose that some algebraic operations $+$ and $\oplus$ satisfy the abide law, i.e. $(a_0+a_1)\oplus(b_0+b_1)=(a_0\oplus b_0)+(a_1\oplus b_1)$. How should I say this, “$+$ abides by $\oplus$” or what?
  2. Is there a generalization of the abide law for any arity, i.e. $f(g(a_{00}, a_{01}, \ldots), g(a_{10}, a_{11}, \ldots), \ldots)$ $= g(f(a_{00}, a_{10}, \ldots), f(a_{01}, a_{11}, \ldots), \ldots)$?
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    You should specify some context for the abide law, e.g. perhaps you are working with streams in functional programming languages, e.g. see Hinze: [Concrete Stream Calculus.](http://www.cs.ox.ac.uk/ralf.hinze/publications/CSC.pdf)2011-07-15
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    @Bill Dubuque: Why? It's odd that we use different words in different contexts for the same concept.2011-07-18

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