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Let $\mathbb{H}$ denote the complex upper half plane (not including the real axis). Let $A$ be a bounded subset with $A = \mathbb{H} \cap \overline{A}$ and $\mathbb{H} \backslash A$ simply connected. Why does it follow from the Riemann mapping theorem that there are conformal maps $g: \mathbb{H} \backslash A \rightarrow \mathbb{H}$ with $|g(z)| \rightarrow \infty$ as $z \rightarrow \infty$?

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    This condition $A=\mathbb{H}\cap\overline{A}$ is incredibly strange. I assume "bounded subset" means of $\mathbb{H}$ since that is the only set mentioned. But then the condition is just that $A=\overline{A}$, i.e. $A$ is closed. Either I'm missing something or we may as well say "Let $A$ be a bounded closed subset with $\mathbb{H}\setminus A$ simply connected".2011-09-24
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    @Matt: I interpreted it that $A$ is bounded in $\mathbb{C}$ and that the closure of $A$ is taken in $\mathbb{C}$, but we'll have to wait to find out the true answer, I guess.2011-09-25
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    @Matt: The notation $\bar A$ must mean the closure in $\mathbb{C}$ (and bounded means bounded in $\mathbb{C}$). Then, $A=\mathbb{H}\cap\bar A$ says that $A$ is closed in $\mathbb{H}$.2011-09-25
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    I'm not sure why it should even matter for the problem at hand, where the closure is taken.......2011-09-25

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