If we define symmetric difference as $A\triangle B=(A\setminus B)\cup(B\setminus A)$, can we also say that $(A\cup B)\triangle C=(A\triangle C)\cup(B\triangle C)$?
Is this symmetric difference statement valid?
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elementary-set-theory
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0Have you tried just expanding both sides? One way to study this is that instead of writing $A \backslash B$, write $A \cap B^c$, where the $^c$ stands for complement. In this manner you can use the fact that in a set $X$, there is a boolean ring $(P(X), \cap, \cup)$ which is a ring of sets, and under this operation there is distributivity of the two operations. Perhaps you probably knew but I was just making sure. – 2011-11-16
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3If $x$ is in $B$ and $C$ but not in $A$, then it's not in the first set but it is in the second. – 2011-11-16