In the Eculidean Space, one can automatically define a norm if a specific scalar product is given. On the contrary, it's not always true. A p-norm is a scalar product if and only if p=2. My question is what condition do we need in order to move back?
From norm to scalar product
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norm
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0See http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/21792/norms-induced-by-inner-products/ – 2011-05-29