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For each prime number $p$, is there always an other prime number between $p$ and $p^2$ ?

I tested it for prime numbers $< 500,000,000$, but I wanted to know if there is any mathematical proof of this ?

  • 1
    Shouldn't it be migrated to Math instead of closed? :/2011-05-09
  • 0
    I think closing, instead of migrating, is not the best move...2011-05-09
  • 4
    Can anyone give a direct combinatorial proof of this?2011-05-09
  • 0
    Would $\pi(x) \ge \log x / \log 2$ be enough?2011-05-09

1 Answers 1