Suppose $1
I was able to show $\|f\|_{p_1} \le \|f\|_{p_2} (b-a)^{1/p_1 - 1/p_2}$ but I'm not sure how to proceed from here.
Suppose $1
I was able to show $\|f\|_{p_1} \le \|f\|_{p_2} (b-a)^{1/p_1 - 1/p_2}$ but I'm not sure how to proceed from here.