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I've been working with the Fermat numbers recently but this problem has really tripped me up. If the Fermat theorem is set as $f_a=2^{2^a}+1$, then how can we say that for an integer $b$ less than $a$ that $\gcd(f_b,f_a)=1$?

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    By "Fermat theorem", do you mean "Fermat number"?2011-09-30

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