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If we have two functions, $f:\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}$ and $g:\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}$ where $g(f(a))=a$ for every integer $a$, how do we satisfy these conditions so that $f$ and $g$ are not bijective?

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    The question is not really clear. Which conditions are you referring to?2011-11-17
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    It should not be that hard to find such an example. Similar example was given for N instead of Z in another your question: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/82961/why-do-these-functions-have-to-be-bijective/82964#829642011-11-17
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    I apologize for my ambiguity. What I mean to ask is: can we find functions $f$ and $g$ in which neither is bijective so that $f:\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}$ and $g:\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}$ where $g(f(a))=a$ for every integer $a$2011-11-17
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    @MartinSleziak: it seems much tougher to find examples for $\mathbb{Z}$ because of the difficulty of dealing with negative numbers. So far I have come up empty2011-11-17
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    What about taking the maps from that answer and extend them by putting $f(a)=g(a)=a$ for each $a\le 0$?2011-11-17
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    But if $f(a)=g(a)=a$ then we would have two bijective functions, which is what I am trying to avoid2011-11-18
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    @johnnymath: Martin Sleziak's point was to use the function on $\mathbb{N}$ from Alon Amit's post, then extend it to negatives with the identity. The section on $\mathbb{N}$ has already violated bijectivity.2011-11-18

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