Hi all i have this question in which i don't really understand the line of reasoning.
Given rvs X ∼ N(0, 1), Y ∼ N(0, 4), is P(X > 3) < P(Y < –6)?
The reasoning is :
P(Y < –6) = P(Y > 6) < P(Y / 2 > 3) = P(X > 3).
I don't understand this part: P(Y > 6) < P(Y / 2 > 3)
Isn't P(Y / 2 > 3) exactly equal to P(Y > 6)?
Also i don't really understand why P(Y / 2 > 3) = P(X > 3)
Could anyone enlighten me?
Thanks :)