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I haven't studied basic calculus/analysis for a while so I apologise if this is obvious. In the course of solving another problem I have found that a sum of the form $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(n - 1)a_n$ converges. I also know that the sum $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n$ converges, and also that each term $a_n$ is non-negative. Can I then conclude that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}na_n$ converges? I have a feeling this is true but I'm not really sure why.

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    This is however not exactly matching the title of the question. Knowing just that $\sum a_n$ converges does not allow to conclude that $\sum(n-1)a_n$ converges (e.g. if $a_n=\frac1{(n-1)^2}$ for n>1).2012-10-18

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For $n>1$ you have $0\le a_n\le(n-1)a_n$, and $\sum_{n\ge 1}(n-1)a_n$ converges, so by the comparison test $\sum_{n\ge 1}a_n$ converges. The convergence is absolute, since these are non-negative series, so

$\sum_{n\ge 1}na_n=\sum_{n\ge 1}(n-1)a_n+\sum_{n\ge 1}a_n$

must also converge.

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    A downvote without explanation is singularly unhelpful.2012-10-19