Must an homomorphism induced by a transitive action be surjective?
Thanks.
Must an homomorphism induced by a transitive action be surjective?
Thanks.
No. If $X=\{1,\dots,n\}$ for some positive integer $n$, then the cyclic group $C_n$ of order $n$ with generator $g\in C_n$ acts on $X$ by the rule $g\cdot i=i+1$ for all $1\leq i\leq n-1$ and $g\cdot n = 1$. The action of $C_n$ on $X$ is transitive. However, $C_n$ is a proper subgroup of the permutation group of the set $X$.
The following supplementary exercises are relevant:
Exercise 1: Prove that if $H\subseteq C_n$ is a proper subgroup, then $H$ does not act transitively on $X$ in the context of the example above.
Exercise 2: Give an example of a subgroup $G\subseteq S_n$ minimal with respect to the property that $G$ acts $2$-transitively on $X$ in the context of the example above. (Please read Ben Millwood's answer below for the definition of a $2$-transitive action.)
I hope this helps!
There exists a concept called an $n$-transitive action, that is, an action for which any $n$-element subset of the set acted upon can be mapped to any other such set (so for example I can map any unordered pair to any other. Note that the definition uses subsets rather than tuples because I can never map two things to the same place, or one thing to two places).
Once you're aware of this concept and examples of it (e.g. Möbius transformations are triply-transitive on the Riemann sphere), the following two facts ought to become clear:
These two facts together show that homomorphism is not always surjective.
Another way of looking at it is to realise that if an action on $\{1\dots 6\}$ is transitive, that means I can map $1$ to $3$ and I can map $5$ to $4$ and I can map $2$ to $6$, but if the homomorphism is surjective, that means I can do all three with a single element of the group. That's clearly a much stronger condition.