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$ A=(A_0/z)\exp[-jk(x^{2}+y^{2})/2z] $ $ \frac{\partial{A}}{\partial{x}} = -jxA\frac{k}{z} $ Can anybody explain why this is the case? I thought that exponential functions never disappeared when one does derivatives.

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    I see now. Thanks everyone. – 2012-10-14

2 Answers 2

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Well, it doesn't disappear. What you didn't write is, that A is a function depending on $x$. Actually you have

$\partial_x A = -jk\frac{k}{z}A(x)$

and the $\exp$ is included in your function A(x). This is the prototype of an ordinary differential equation.

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Let $B=e^x$. Then $B'=B$. Has the exponential dísappeared?