I was studying and I got the next doubt:
We suppose that $(X,\|\cdot\|)$ is a Banach space and $C$ it is a convex closed subset of X.
We say that $x\in C$ it is an exposed point of $C$ if $\exists x^*\in X^*$ such that $x$ it is the only one point of $C$ that $x^*(x)=\displaystyle\sup_C x^*$.
We say that $x\in C$ it is an strongly exposed point of $C$ if $\exists x^*\in X^*$ such that for every sequence $(x_n)\subset C$ that verifies $x^*(x_n)\to \displaystyle\sup_C x^*$ then $\|x_n-x\|\to 0$.
It's true that every strongly exposed point it is an exposed point. So I try to view if every exposed point it is an strongly exposed point (it would be false!).
Suppose that $x\in C$ it is an exposed point, then there is $x^*\in X^*$ such that $x^*(x)=\displaystyle\sup_C x^*$. Let $(x_n)\in C$ such that $x^*(x_n)\to \displaystyle\sup_C x^*$. $x_n$ must converge ($x^*$ is continuous), so we suppose that $x_n\to y\in C$ ($C$ is closed). Then, by continuity $x^*(x_n)\to x^*(y)=\displaystyle\sup_C x^*$.
So by the uniqueness, $x=y$ and then $\|x_n-x\|=\|x_n-y\|\to 0$. Then $x$ it is an strongly exposed point.
The question is: what is wrong in my reasoning? There is a counterexample of Lindenstrauss for example (7.73 in the a book of Fabian: Functional Analysis and Infinite-Dimensional Geometry).
Many thanks beforehand.