First note that the complex Gaussian $Z$ can be defined as having the density $\frac{1}{2 \pi} e^{\frac{-|z|^2}{2}}$. (When defining it this way the complex Gaussian $Z$ is the sum $X+iY$ of two real standard Gaussian $X,Y$. Then the variance of $Z$ will be 2. Because of this one often defines a standard complex Gaussian $\tilde{Z}$ via the density function $\frac{1}{\pi}e^{{-|z|^2}}$. Then $Var[Z]=\mathbb{E}[|\tilde{Z}|^2]=1$ and $\tilde{Z}$ is the sum of two real centered Gaussian with variance $\frac{1}{2}.)$
Now if you set $z=x+iy$ the density will be the same as you write at the beginning of your question. To see this, note that - as Sasha pointed out in the comments - we have that $\mathbb{C}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^2$. The Lebesque measure $\lambda^{(2)}$ on $\mathbb{R}^2$ is the same as $\lambda\otimes\lambda$ (where $\lambda$ is the Lebesque measure on $\mathbb{R}$) so we see:
$\int_{\mathbb{C}}{\frac{1}{2 \pi} e^{\frac{-|z|^2}{2}}}dz=\int_{\mathbb{R}^2}{\frac{1}{2 \pi} e^{\frac{-(x^2+y^2)}{2}}}d(x,y)=\int_{\mathbb{R}}\int_{\mathbb{R}}{\frac{1}{2 \pi} e^{\frac{-(x^2+y^2)}{2}}}dxdy.$
The double integral you write at the end of your question makes not too much sense: The two $"\int"$'s indicate that the integral is over $\mathbb{C}^2$ but $z^*$ doesn't occur in the integrand. So you would integrate 1 over $\mathbb{C}$ and the integral would be infinite.
For more on the complex Gaussian see also here.