Maybe is a silly question, but for some reason I am confused...
If $\mathcal{F}$ is a normed space of real functions and $\displaystyle{ f \in \mathcal{\bar F } }$ then there exists a sequence of functions $ \displaystyle{ (f_n ) \subset \mathcal{F} }$ such that $\displaystyle{ f_n \to f \quad \text{as} \quad n \to \infty}$ which is equivelant to $\displaystyle{ || f_n -f|| \to 0 \quad \text{as} \quad n \to \infty}$
Here is my question: The convergence $f_n \to f$ is uniform or pointwise ?
Thank's in advance!
edit: $\displaystyle{ f, f_n : A \subset \mathbb R \to \mathbb R }$
Is now more clear my question?
Any ideas?