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Suppose now that the objects in question are abelian topological groups $G$ so that morphisms are continuous group homomorphisms. Given an exact sequence of abelian topological groups $0 \to G''\to G \to G''$ is the functor $\textrm{Hom}(H,-)$ a left-exact functor? $H$ is an abelian topological group.

We know that if we only care about group homomorphisms then $\textrm{Hom}(H,-)$ is left-exact, but will the condition of continuity now change anything? It seems there is a problem because to prove exactness at $\textrm{Hom}(H,G)$ requires defining a map from $H \to G''$ which may not be continuous.

Edit: PinkElephants has shown us that this functor may fail to be exact. However if we consider a specific case which is the exact sequence

$0 \to \Bbb{Z} \to \Bbb{R} \stackrel{e^{2\pi i x}}{\longrightarrow } S^1 \to 0$

then is the functor $\textrm{Hom}(S^1, -)$ left-exact? What about the contravariant functor $\textrm{Hom}(-,S^1)$, is it still right-exact?

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    Hi Ben, I just stumbled over this thread: in view of the accepted answer, maybe you're interested in having a look at my expository paper on [exact categories](http://dx.doi.org/10.1016/j.exmath.2009.04.004) where I give a hands-on approach to Quillen's theory. Best wishes and a happy New Year, Theo2012-12-26

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$\DeclareMathOperator{Hom}{Hom}$Given a short sequence $0 \to A \xrightarrow{f} B \xrightarrow{g} C \to 0,\tag{$\ast$}$ in an additive category, the sequence of abelian groups $ 0 \to \Hom(G,A) \xrightarrow{f_\ast} \Hom(G,B) \xrightarrow{g_\ast} \Hom(G,C) $ is exact for all $G$ if and only if $f$ is a kernel of $g$ and, dually, $ 0 \to \Hom(C,G) \xrightarrow{g^\ast} \Hom(B,G) \xrightarrow{f^\ast} \Hom(A,G) $ is exact for all $G$ if and only if $g$ is a cokernel of $f$.

This can be interpreted as follows: Since we want $\Hom$ to be left exact, the minimal requirement that a short sequence $(\ast)$ in an additive category should satisfy in order to deserve to be called exact is that $f$ be a kernel of $g$ and that $g$ be a cokernel of $f$.

From this point of view, the example in Pink Elephant's answer is not a good one: the identity $G \to H$ is a monomorphism and an epimorphism, but it is not an isomorphism and a fortiori neither a kernel nor a cokernel.

The trouble of calling all kernel-cokernel sequences $(\ast)$ exact is that they lack the closure conditions you need in order to prove the diagram lemmas necessary for homological algebra. A particularly convenient (hence convincing) approach to exact sequences (albeit not intrinsic as in abelian categories) is usually attributed to Quillen, see exact categories. In a nutshell what this means is that you have to think about what sequences you want to call exact.

Outside of the additive setting exactness can be dealt with in various ways but it gets even more complicated. See e.g. Borceux-Bourn's book.

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Let $H$ be an abelian topological group whose topology is not discrete, and let $G$ have the same underlying group as $H$ but with the discrete topology. Consider the short exact sequence $0\to G\to H\to 0\to 0$ where $G\to G$ is the identity on sets.

Now the sequence $0\to \mathrm{Hom}(H,G)\to \mathrm{Hom}(H,H)\to \mathrm{Hom}(H,0)$ is not exact at $\mathrm{Hom}(H,H)$, as $\mathrm{Id}_H$ is in the kernel but not the image.

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    You may see my edit in the question above for further queries.2012-12-11