2
$\begingroup$

Suppose $f(x,y)=f(y,x)$. Does it follow that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$?

Intuitively it seems like it must, because taking a "step" in the $x$ direction must be the same as taking one in the $y$. But when I try to prove it I get lost as to which is "really" x or y.

EDIT: I should have been more clear. What I meant was: does $\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial f(y,x)}{\partial y}$?

(At some intuitive level this is like doing a "find and replace" s/x/y/, but my intuition fails when taking the derivative.)

  • 3
    Isn't $x^2+y^2$ a counterexample? $2x \neq 2y$. Maybe you mean that if you switch $x$ and $y$ in one partial derivative you get the other?2012-09-07

2 Answers 2

7

Consider $f(x,y)=xy$. Are $f_x$ and $f_y$ equal?

What is true is that if you interchange $x$ and $y$ in $f_x(x,y)$, you’ll get $f_y(x,y)$.

Added: To be absolutely clear, by ‘interchange $x$ and $y$’ I mean ‘replace each $x$ by a $y$ and each $y$ by an $x$’.

  • 0
    @Xodarap: $\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(x+h,y)-f(x,y)}h=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(y,x+h)-f(y,x)}h$.2012-09-08
0

I believe that if we use a different notation for the variables and the arguments, it will be easier to see.

If $f(a,b)=f(b,a)$, then $ f_x(a,b)=lim_{h\to0}(f(a+h,b)-f(a,b))/(h)\\ =lim_{h\to0}(f(b,a+h)-f(b,a))/(h) =f_y(b,a) $

The same process could be done to obtain $f_{xx}(a,b)=f_{yy}(b,a)$.