I was going through the derivation of Wigner distribution properties, and encountered a certain step in the proof I could not justify.
Namely, the step requires the following equality to be true:
$\int d^2 \lambda \frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \left( \exp(-\lambda \alpha^* + \lambda^* \alpha) f(\lambda) \right) \equiv 0$,
where $\alpha$ and $\lambda = x + iy$ are complex numbers, $\int d^2 \lambda \equiv \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx dy$, and the differential is a Wirtinger one:
$\frac{\partial}{\partial \lambda} \equiv \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial x} - i \frac{\partial}{\partial y} \right)$.
The function $f$ is bounded, continuous and infinitely differentiable (w.r.t. $x$ and $y$), but not necessarily going to zero on the infinity.
As far as I understand, this is a Fourier transform, and the equality would reduce to a known property (Fourier transform of derivative), if $\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} f = 0$ and $\lim_{y \rightarrow \infty} f = 0$, which is, unfortunately, not the case. Could anyone point me to the idea behind the proof in such circumstances?