Let the unit disc $\{(x,y): r^2=x^2+y^2<1\}\subset\mathbb R^2$ be equipped with the Riemannian metric $dx^2 +dy^2\over 1-(x^2+y^2)$. Why does it follow that the shortest/infimum length of curves are diameters? I remember doing an optimization course some time ago, but unfortunately all that was learnt has been unlearnt. Or perhaps there is a simpler way?
Infimum length of curves
1 Answers
This can be done with some variational calculus. So, given the metric
$ds^2=\frac{dx^2+dy^2}{1-x^2-y^2}$
the length of a curve will be given by
$l=\int ds=\int\sqrt{\frac{dx^2+dy^2}{1-x^2-y^2}}.$
Now, let us parametrize our curve with a parameter $t$ so to have $x=x(t)$ and $y=y(t)$. We will have
$l=\int ds=\int\sqrt{\frac{\dot x^2+\dot y^2}{1-x^2-y^2}}dt$
being dot a derivative with respect to time. Now, we can do variational calculus and we take the shortest paths as those having $\delta l=0$. This gives the following Lagrange equations
$\frac{d}{dt}\left[\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}}\frac{\dot x}{\sqrt{\dot x^2+\dot y^2}}\right]=\frac{x\sqrt{\dot x^2+\dot y^2}}{(1-x^2-y^2)^\frac{3}{2}}$
$\frac{d}{dt}\left[\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}}\frac{\dot y}{\sqrt{\dot x^2+\dot y^2}}\right]=\frac{y\sqrt{\dot x^2+\dot y^2}}{(1-x^2-y^2)^\frac{3}{2}}.$
The solution of these equations are straight lines $y=x$.
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0Yes, of course. If you have a functional $S=\int dt L(\dot x, \dot y,x,y)$ and do variations with respect to $\dot x, \dot y,x,y$, after integration by part and proper boundary conditions, you are left with Lagrange equations that can be written in the generic form $\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q_i}=\frac{\partial L}{\partial q_i}$ being ${\bf q}=(x,y)$. – 2012-02-23