Let $\Omega\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ be a bounded domain and $K:\Omega\times\Omega\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ with $\|K\|_{L^2(\Omega\times\Omega)}<1.$ How can I show that the following equation has only the zero solution? $u(x)=\int_\Omega K(x,y)u(y)dy$
Thanks