I'd love your help with the following question: I need to prove or refute the claim that for a Riemann integrable function $f$ in $[0,1]$ also $\sin(f)$ is integrable on $[0,1]$.
My translation for this claim: If $\int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx < \infty$, so does $\int_{0}^{1} \sin(f(x))dx < \infty$, Am I right?
I tried to think of an elementary function that will fit the conditions, one that will blow up in $0$ or $1$ or both, but I didn't find any. Can I just use the fact that $\int_{0}^{1} \sin(f(x))dx \leq \int_{0}^{1} 1dx < \infty$ and that's it or Am I missing something?
Thanks!