Possible Duplicate:
For two problems A and B, if A is in P, then A is reducible to B?
Given two problems $A$ and $B$, if $A$ is in $\def\P{{\mathcal P}}\P$ then $A$ is reducible to $B$. ($A < B$)
Why does it not matter if $B$ is in $\P$ or $\mathcal{NP}$?
Why can just knowing that $A$ is in $\P$ mean that it is reducible regardless of $B$?