Is there any relation between the limiting behaviour of $\Gamma({\epsilon})$ and $\Gamma(-1+{\epsilon})$? I have seen the relation such as $\Gamma(-1+{\epsilon})$ $=$ $\Gamma({\epsilon})/(-1+{\epsilon})$. I think it is basically wrong? But does there exist such a similar relation?
Gamma function of negative argument
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0You may appreciate the discussion in this ['Limits defined for negative factorials'](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/168223/limits-defined-for-negative-factorials-i-e-n-space-n-in-mathbbn) thread. – 2012-12-22
2 Answers
The relation $\Gamma(-1+\epsilon) = \Gamma({\epsilon})/(-1+{\epsilon})$ is true so long as $\epsilon$ is not a negative integer (so that $-1+\epsilon$ will then also not be a negative integer) since the gamma function is extended to the complex plane minus the negative integers by using the relation $\Gamma(z)=\Gamma(z+1)/z$ or by using analytic continuation.
Thus, you can say something about the limiting behaviour of $\Gamma(\epsilon)$ and $\Gamma(-1+\epsilon)$, in that you can say that
$\lim_{\epsilon\to 0} \frac{\Gamma(-1+\epsilon)}{\Gamma(\epsilon)} = \lim_{\epsilon\to 0} \frac{1}{-1+\epsilon} = -1.$
Note that the fact that $\Gamma(z)$ is not defined at $-1$ does not affect this, since for the limit, we are only interested in the values of the function close to $-1$.
In other words, $|\Gamma(z)\vert$ tends to infinity "at the same rate" as $z\to 0$ or as $z\to -1$, and similar results could be proved at any negative integer.
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0Well put. (+1) Computations of this sort often show up in dimensional regularization. – 2012-12-22
Your relation /would/ hold if $\Gamma$ were continuous at $-1$. It is not, however: intuitively, we cannot take the factorial of negative integers.
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0@JM Yes!! Thank you. – 2013-04-03