Suppose I have a linear transformation $T: V\to W$. If I perform this transformation on the $0$ vector of $V$, $0_V$, does that necessarily mean its image will be $0_W$? In other words, is it necessarily true that $T(0_V) = 0_W$?
Whether linear transformation maps $0$ to $0$
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linear-algebra
transformation
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1Yes: $T(0)=T(v-v)=T(v)-T(v)=0$. – 2012-12-09
2 Answers
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Yes. This is true. Note that $T(0\cdot 0_V)=0T(0_V)=0_W$.
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We use only the usual axioms of a vector space and linear map to obtain $T(v)=T(v+0)=T(0+v)=T(0)+T(v).$ It follows that $0=T(v)-T(v)=(T(0)+T(v))-T(v)=T(0)+(T(v)-T(v))=T(0)+0=T(0).$
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0Congratulations! 10K rep!!! – 2012-12-13