0
$\begingroup$

If a number is normal in a base $b$, it is absolutely normal. Is this an open question or is there a counter example?

1 Answers 1

2

If $r$ and $s$ are multiplicatively independent integers, then it is known that there are (lots of) numbers that are normal to base $r$ but not to base $s$. I think Wolfgang Schmidt may have proved this, and there is also work by Andy Pollington.

EDIT: a reference is Wolfgang M. Schmidt, Über die Normalität von Zahlen zu verschiedenen Basen, Acta Arith. 7 1961/1962 299–309, MR0140482 (25 #3902). This builds on earlier work of Cassels.

  • 0
    Here's a link to a freely accessible copy: http://matwbn.icm.edu.pl/ksiazki/aa/aa7/aa7311.pdf2012-10-22