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I would like to show that every power series expansion for an entire function converges everywhere.

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    What is your definition of an entire function?2012-03-27

2 Answers 2

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Using Cauchy's Theorem and integration by parts yields $ \begin{align} \left|\frac{f^{(n)}(w)}{n!}\right| &=\left|\frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint\frac{f^{(n)}(w+z)}{n!\,z}\mathrm{d}z\right|\\ &=\left|\frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint\frac{f(w+z)}{z^{n+1}}\mathrm{d}z\right|\\ &\le\frac{1}{r^n}\max_{B(w,r)} |f|\tag{1} \end{align} $ where the integration is around the circle $z=r\,e^{it}$ for $t$ from $0$ to $2\pi$.

Estimate $(1)$, called Cauchy's Estimates, says that the radius of convergence of the Taylor series for $f$ is at least $r$. Since $f$ is entire, we can set $r$ as large as we want.

Therefore, the Taylor series for $f$ at $w$ converges for all $z$.

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    @tb: Thanks! I dredged this up from somewhere, but I don't think I ever knew what they were called.2012-03-28
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Maybe something is wrong with this answer, but it seems to be pretty simple.

First, we know that the power series of an analytic function is unique. So if a function is entire (analytic in the whole complex plane), then its power series is unique on the whole plane, and by definition is convergent.

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    If we're taking the definition of entire to be "all power series converge everywhere to the function" then your answer is a circular detour back to this definition. Otherwise you're begging the question.2012-03-27