It would seem the unit circle is nicely tucked under the graph of $\cos x$, touching only at (0,1), but is that what's truly going on here?
Does the graph of $\cos x$ intersect the unit circle other than the point (0,1)?
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0The series expansion for $x^2+\cos^2 x-1$ starts $\frac{x^4}{3}-\frac{2 x^6}{45}+\frac{x^8}{315}+\cdots$. Indeed, you have a tangency at $(0,1)$; there might be complex roots, but they apparently don't matter here. – 2012-02-02
4 Answers
Let $f(x)=\cos x-\sqrt{1-x^2}$ for $-1
For $x\ne0$ we have $|\sin x|<|x|$; thus, for $x\ne0$: $ \text{dist} \bigl((x,\cos x ), (0,0)\bigr)=\sqrt{x^2+\cos^2x } \gt\sqrt{\sin^2 x+\cos^2 x}=1. $
The distance from a point on the graph of $y=\cos x$ to the origin is strictly greater than 1 for $x\ne0$ and, thus, any point on the graph of $y=\cos x$ lies outside the unit circle except for the point $(0,1)$.
Yes.
The unit circle can be represented parametrically as $\begin{align} x &= \sin(t) \\ y &= \cos(t) \end{align}$ and the cosine curve as $\begin{align} x &= t \\ y &= \cos(t) \end{align}$ (Note: the parametrization given here of the unit circle is unusual, but will give the same circle.)
Now, the question becomes one about solving a system of equations, namely: $\begin{align} \sin(t) &= t \\ \cos(t) &= \cos(t) \end{align}$ The second one will always be true, so it is only the first one that merits solving. There is a solution at $t=0$, but that doesn't mean there aren't any others. The fact that $\sin(x) < x \;\, \forall x > 0$ means that this is the only solution. Hence, the cosine curve touches the unit circle in exactly one place: $(0,1)$.
Added: Dustan Levenstein made a good point that I did not guarantee that I got all intersection points. Also possible is: $\begin{align} t &\neq s \\ \sin(t) &= s \\ \cos(t) &= \cos(s) \end{align}$ Substituting gives $\cos(t) = \cos(\sin(t))$ At this point, $t$ can be restricted to $0 \leq t \leq 1$ because $\sin(t) \leq 1 \;\, \forall t$ and $\sin(t)$ is symmetric about the y-axis. Now that $t$ is restricted to that range, take the inverse cosine of both sides. $t = \sin(t)$ As this has already been proved to be true only when $t=0$, I can now guarantee that $(0,1)$ is the only intersection point of a cosine curve and the unit circle.
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1@DustanLevenstein: Edited that in. – 2012-02-02
The slightly brute force approach works quickly. There is symmetry across the $y$-axis, so we can assume that $x\ge 0$. We want to show that for $0