From the wikipedia article on the Skolem paradox:
A central goal of early research into set theory was to find a first order axiomatisation for set theory which was categorical, meaning that the axioms would have exactly one model, consisting of all sets. Skolem's result showed this is not possible, creating doubts about the use of set theory as a foundation of mathematics.
I would like to know if the term "categorical" for that property here lead to the naming of category theory. Maybe because all the problems of non-absoluteness don't happen there? How is the relation?