See @anon's answer.
For completion's sake we will examine the function $f(z) = \frac{1}{z^2 + 1}$ parametrized by $z = z_0 + Re^{i \theta}$. If we center the contour at $z_0 = 0$ then the expansion $z^2 = R^2 e^{2it}$ so $f(z) = \frac{1}{R^2 e^{2it} + 1}$.
Given the line integral: $\oint_{C}{f(z)\ \mathrm{d}z} = \int_a^{b}{f(C(\theta)) C'(\theta)}\ \mathrm{d}\theta$
Where $C(\theta)$ is the parametrization of a circular contour using the variable theta. Fitting our function to the parametrization and evaluating: $\begin{aligned} \oint_{C}{f(z)\ \mathrm{d}z} &= \int_0^{\pi}{\frac{ie^{i \theta}}{R^2 e^{2it} + 1}}\ \mathrm{d}\theta \\&= -\frac{2 \tan^{-1}(R)}{R} \end{aligned}$
We know that the ArcTangent is bounded by [0, 1) for all $0 \leq \theta \leq \pi$ so we can say $-\frac{2 \tan^{-1}(R)}{R} \leq -\frac{2M}{R}$. Next apply the limit for $R \to 0$
$\lim_{R \to \infty}{ -\frac{2M}{R}} = 0$
Thus, we have shown that as $R \to \infty$, the integral around the contour "vanishes".
This may go nowhere but perhaps you can even apply Cauchy-Goursat theorem to show that the integral about the contour is 0 so long as $i$ is not in the region enclosed by the contour. i.e. $R < 1$. Otherwise, when $R > 1$ use deformation of contours. Something to think about.