Is it true, that having an open ball $B(0,1)$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$ (say $n=2$, but the more general answer the better) and a set $C$ such that $0 \in \overline{C}$, there is no open neighbourhood of $0$ in $B(0,1)\setminus C$ homeomorphic with $B(0,1)$.
This comes from something with less technical wording: is it true, that image of every embedding of an $n$-manifold into another $n$-manifold is open?