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i am asking here the most simple and dumbest question ever. once i was reading about convergence yesterday night, i came to the notion which beats me over times: The archimedean axiom
the text was about the convergence of the sequence $\frac{1}{n}$.

The Sequence $\frac{1}{n}$ is a zero-sequence: Proof: There is $\epsilon>0$. According to AA, there is $N\in\Bbb{N}$ with $N>\frac{1}{\epsilon}$. Then $|\frac{1}{n}-0|=\frac{1}{n}<\epsilon$ for all $n\ge N$

what i dont understand is: why AA and why $N>\frac{1}{\epsilon}$? what does that mean in words? i imagined in a line saying that $\epsilon=2$ then $\frac{1}{\epsilon}$ is the 0.5 part of that line. So the $N$ should be greater than that part of $\epsilon$-neighborhood, why?

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There are several equivalent ways to axiomatize the Archimedean property of $\Bbb R$; from what you’ve written it sounds like you’re working with the version that says that for any real number $x$ there is a positive integer $n$ such that $n>x$. Intuitively this axiom just says that there is no real number that is larger than all of the integers: no matter how far out in $\Bbb R$ you go, you’ll still find integers.

In the proof that you’re reading, you have a positive real number $\epsilon$, and you want to show that there is some $N\in\Bbb N$ such that $\frac1n<\epsilon$ for all $n\ge N$. (This is in order to show that $\left\langle\frac1n:n\in\Bbb Z^+\right\rangle$ is a zero-sequence.) The Archimedean property doesn’t say anything directly about small numbers, but recall that for positive real numbers $a$ and $b$, $a if and only if $\frac1a>\frac1b$, so we can take reciprocals and deal with large numbers. Since $\epsilon>0$, $\frac1\epsilon>0$ as well, and the Archimedean property ensures that there is a positive integer $N>\frac1\epsilon$. By elementary algebra this implies that $\frac1N<\epsilon$, and a little more algebra shows that if $\frac1n\le\frac1N<\epsilon$ for all $n\ge N$. That’s exactly what’s needed to show that $\left\langle\frac1n:n\in\Bbb Z^+\right\rangle$ is a zero-sequence.

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    @doniyor: You’re welcome.2012-12-25
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Archimedes Axiom says that you can always find a "big enough" $N$ to beat any real number you are given - the natural numbers are unbounded in the reals.

Basically you imagine you are given an $\epsilon$ to beat - normally $\epsilon$ is thought of as small and positive and you need to get below it.

So if we want $\frac 1 n < \epsilon$ we are dealing with small numbers. To use Archimedes in the form you have it we need to be dealing with large ones, so we convert our target to $n > \frac 1 {\epsilon}$.

$n$ is a natural number, $\frac 1 {\epsilon}$ is a real number, and we have got your problem in a shape where Archimedes can be used.

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    this answered my question to Brian. Thanks Mark!2012-12-25
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The Archimediaan axiom states that for any real number $x$ there's some $N\in \mathbb{N}$ for which $x. So let $\epsilon$ be some tiny number, as close to $0$ as you want (without being actually equal to $0$). Then $1/\epsilon$ is some big number. By $\sf AA$ there is a $N$ so that $1/\epsilon < N$. So $1/N < \epsilon$. Thus there is no smallest number in the sequence $1/n$ for $n\in \mathbb{N}$.

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    wow, great explanation! Thanks a lot2012-12-25
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It slightly depends on your statement of the Archimedean Axiom. One is

Let $x$ be any real number. Then there exists a natural number $n$ such that $n$ is greater than $x$.

So if $\epsilon$ is a positive real number then so too is $\frac{1}{\epsilon}$.

By AA there is a natural number $N$ such that $N$ is greater than $\frac{1}{\epsilon}$. And for any natural number $n$ greater than $N$, $n$ is also greater than $\frac{1}{\epsilon}$ or in symbols $n \gt \frac{1}{\epsilon}$.

For all such $n$ greater than $\frac{1}{\epsilon}$, you have $\frac{1}{n}$ is less than $\epsilon$, and so $\frac{1}{n}$ is closer to zero than $\epsilon$ is, which is what you wanted to prove.