I understand that this may require the use of the more popular limit:
$\lim_{n \to \infty} (1 + \frac{a}{n})^n = e^a$
but can't seem to find the correct way to use it.
I've tried setting $b_n$ := $(n^{1/n} - 1)$ so that $(1 + b_n)^n = n \to \infty$, but that didn't seem to help.
Any hints on this method or solutions using other methods would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.