Given $\mathbb{R}^4$, we define the Minkowski inner product on it by $ \langle v,w \rangle = -v_1w_1 + v_2w_2 + v_3w_3 + v_4w_4$ We say a vector is spacelike if $ \langle v,v\rangle >0 $, and it is timelike if $ \langle v,v \rangle < 0 $.
How can I show that if $v$ is timelike and $ \langle v,w \rangle = 0$ , then $w$ is either the zero vector or spacelike? I've tried to use the polarization identity, but don't have any information regarding the $\langle v+w,v+w \rangle$ term in the identity.
Context: I'm reading a book on Riemannian geometry, and the book gives a proof of a more general result: if $z$ is timelike, then its perpendicular subspace $z^\perp$ is spacelike. It does so using arguments regarding the degeneracy index of the subspace, which I don't fully understand. Since the statement above seems fairly elementary, I was wondering whether it would be possible to give an elementary proof of it as well.
Any help is appreciated!