Is $\bigcup_{p<\infty}\ell_p=c_0 ?$
At least one inclusion obvious: every $p$-summable sequence converges to zero.
Is $\bigcup_{p<\infty}\ell_p=c_0 ?$
At least one inclusion obvious: every $p$-summable sequence converges to zero.
Consider $ x(n)=\frac{1}{\log(n+1)} $ It is easy to check that $x\in c_0\setminus \left(\bigcup_{1\leq p<\infty}\ell_p\right)$. Indeed $ \lim\limits_{n\to \infty} x(n) = \lim\limits_{n\to \infty}\frac{1}{\log (n+1)}=0 $ so $x\in c_0$. Now for fixed $p\in [1,+\infty)$ there exist $N\in \mathbb{N}$ such that for all $n>N$ we have $\log^p (n+1)
Prove: If $V$ is a separable Banach space, then $V$ cannot be written as a countable union of proper linear subspaces.
Because of inclusions among the $\ell_p$ spaces, your union is, in fact, equal to a countable union.
$\frac{1}{\ln n}$ converges to 0 but $\sum \frac{1}{\ln^p n} = \infty$ for any $p \geq 1$.
$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{\log(n+1)}=0\text{, but }\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(\log(n+1))^p}=\infty\quad\forall p>0. $