Maybe this question is a stupid one but, let me ask it here just to be sure. :) We know that under continuity of function $f$ on an interval $[a,b]$ wherein $a: $\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx=-\int_{b}^{a}f(x)dx$ Now,
Does this equality remain valid if we replace $a$ and $b$ with $-\infty$ and $+\infty$ respectively?
I just want to be sure that, if the definition of definite integral can be extended for infinity (as for upper and lower limits). Thanks