Can one prove that $\{x : x=y-z, \gcd(y,z)=1, y,z\in \mathbb{N}\}=\mathbb{N}$?
This problem has arisen at a problem in probability and I've never studied this kind of math before, so I apologize if it is tagged wrong.
Thanks
Can one prove that $\{x : x=y-z, \gcd(y,z)=1, y,z\in \mathbb{N}\}=\mathbb{N}$?
This problem has arisen at a problem in probability and I've never studied this kind of math before, so I apologize if it is tagged wrong.
Thanks
Try $x=(x+1)-1$. $ $ $ $ $ $ $ $