There was a discussion about if there can be 2 infinite sequences $a=a_0a_1a_2...$ and $b=b_0b_1b_2...$ over the set $\{0..9\}$ that both appear in one infinite sequences$c=c_0c_1c_2...$
(Actually the discussion was if 2 Infinite sequencescan be found within $\pi$. >_<
The discussion was held by Computer Science students who obviously have no clue of maths. How do I explain them rather easy that it is impossible?
I tried explaining that if you set $c=a_0a_1a_2...b_0b_1b_2$, c is not a sequences where b appears ever. They invented a new theory of sequences where $...b_2b_1b_0a_0a_1a_2...$ is a sequences...
Obviously you can interlace the sequences to $c=a_0b_0a_1b_1...$ but they are convinced that they can construct a sequences which contains a and b as a whole. Any help proving them wrong?