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$f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is such that f'(x) exists $\forall x.$

And f'(-x)=-f'(x)

I would like to show $f(-x)=f(x)$

In other words a function with odd derivative is even.

If I could apply the fundamental theorem of calculus

\int_{-x}^{x}f'(t)dt = f(x)-f(-x) but since the integrand is odd we have $f(x)-f(-x)=0 \Rightarrow f(x)=f(-x)$

but unfortunately I don't know that f' is integrable.

2 Answers 2

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Let $g(x)=f(-x)$. Then g'(x)=-f'(-x)=f'(x).

Since $g(0)=f(0)$ and g'=f', it follows from the mean value theorem that $g=f$.

  • 0
    @user9352: Antiderivatives of functions on $\mathbb R$ are unique (if they exist) up to an added constant. The easiest way to apply the MVT is to the function $h(x)=g(x)-f(x)$. I recommend contraposition (or contradiction): If $h(0)=0$ and $h(a)\neq 0$ for some $a$, then $h'(c)\neq 0$ for some $c$.2012-01-11
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  • Define functions $f_0(x)=(f(x)+f(-x))/2$ and $f_1(x)=(f(x)-f(-x))/2$. Then $f_0$ and $f_1$ are also differentiable, and $f_0$ is even and $f_1$ is odd.

  • Show that the derivative of an odd function is even, and that of an even function is odd.

  • From the equality f'=f_0'+f_1' conclude that $f_1$ is constant and, therefore, zero.

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    Yeah, that. I even picked the indices in $\mathbb Z/2$ and all!2012-01-11