2
$\begingroup$

Let $f:X \rightarrow Y$ and $g : Y \rightarrow X$ be homotopy inverses, ie. $f \circ g$ and $g\circ f$ are homotopic to the identities on $X$ and $Y$. We know that $f_*$ and $g_*$ are isomorphisms on the fundamental groups of $X$ and $Y$. However, it is my understanding that they need not be inverse isomorphisms. Is there an explicit example where they are not?

  • 0
    This can only happen if $f$, $g$ and the homotopies $f\circ g \simeq id$ and $g\circ f \simeq id$ do *not* preserve base points.2012-03-29

1 Answers 1

4

If $f,g$ are pointed maps (which is necessary so that $f_*,g_*$ make sense): No, they induce inverse homomorphsism.

Homotopic maps induce the same maps on homotopy groups, in particular fundamental groups. This means that we have a functor $\pi_1 : \mathrm{hTop}_* \to \mathrm{Grp}$. Every functor maps two inverse isomorphisms to the corresponding two inverse isomorphisms.

  • 0
    In my experience most introductions to the concept of fundamental groups do not emphasize enough the importance of base points. One often encounters informal statements like "$\pi_1(S^1) = \mathbb Z$" which are not properly explained.2012-03-31