I know that every (Lie group) representation of $\textrm{GL}_n(\Bbb{C})$ is completely reducible; this I believe comes from the fact that every representation of the maximal compact subgroup $\textrm{U}(n)$ is completely reducible. More explicitly, suppose $V$ is a representation of $\textrm{GL}_n(\Bbb{C})$. Then $V$ is also a representation of $\textrm{U}(n)$, by complete reducibility of the unitary group we know that there is a $\textrm{U}(n)$ invariant inner product such that if $U$ is any $\textrm{GL}_n$ - invariant subspace of $V$ (and hence $\textrm{U}(n)$ invariant), there is an orthogonal complement $W$ such that
$V = U \oplus W$
with $W$ invariant under $\textrm{U}(n)$. Now $W$ as a representation of the real Lie algebra $\mathfrak{u}(n)$ is invariant and hence under the complexified Lie algebra $\mathfrak{gl}_n = \mathfrak{u}_n \oplus i \hspace{1mm} \mathfrak{u}(n).$
Since $\textrm{GL}_n(\Bbb{C})$ is connected $W$ is also invariant under $\textrm{GL}_n$ showing that every representation of it is completely reducible.
Now I have read several textbooks on representation theory (e.g. Bump's Lie Groups, Procesi's book of the same name) and they all seem to tacitly assume that every representation of $\textrm{GL}_n$ is completely determined by its character; i.e. if two representations have the same character then they are isomorphic.
Now in the finite groups case, we concluded this fact based on 1) Maschke's Theorem and 2) Linear independence of characters.
We do not necessarily have 2) so how can we conclude the fact I said about about $\textrm{GL}_n$?
Thanks.