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Possible Duplicate:
Zero to zero power

According to Wolfram Alpha:

$0^0$ is indeterminate.

According to google: $0^0=1$

According to my calculator: $0^0$ is undefined

Is there consensus regarding $0^0$? And what makes $0^0$ so problematic?

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    If you arrive at $0^0$ without having made a math error, then it is always $1$. For example, substituting $x=0$ in $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^n$ produces $0^0+0^1+\cdots$ which equals $1$. If, on the other hand, you arrive at $0^0$ by incorrectly computing a limit of $f(x)^{g(x)}$ then $0^0$ (i.e. $1$) may not be the correct limit. In this case, recompute the limit using the list of transformations on wikipedia's "indeterminate form" page.2017-02-19

8 Answers 8

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This question will probably be closed as a duplicate, but here is the way I used to explain it to my students:

Since $x^0=1$ for all non-zero $x$, we would like to define $0^0$ to be 1. but ...

since $0^x = 0$ for all positive $x$, we would like to define $0^0$ to be 0.

The end result is that we can't have all the "rules" of indices playing nicely with each other if we decide to chose one of the above options, it might be better if we decided that $0^0$ should just be left as "undefined".

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    @OldJohn: Lets look at the logic behind your argument. We would like $P$: $0^0=1$ as well as $Q$: $0^0=0$. But $P$ contradicts $Q$ and so: not ($P$ and $Q$). However, from this you draw the conclusion: (not $P$) and (not $Q$).2017-02-12
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In set theory, where everything is a set, $0$ is represented by the empty set. Exponentiation of sets $\alpha^\beta$, let's call them cardinalities and write $|\alpha|^{|\beta|}$, is defined to be the cardinality (number of elements) of all functions from $\beta \to \alpha$. If both $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are empty, then there is exactly one function $\varnothing \to \varnothing$, hence $0^0 = 1$.

Though this is just a convention, I like how it justifies $0^0 = 1$.

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    @Ralph : ) ${}{}{}$2012-12-16
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One way of looking at it is that there are two different exponentiation operators that are denoted $a^b$:

  • Discrete (algebraic): when $b$ is an integer. Then the exponentiation is multiple multiplication or division. This can be used in any group. This operator occurs in Taylor series, the binomial expansion, when calculating the size of the set $A^B$ given sizes of $A$ and $B$ etc. For this operator, $0^0=1$, or in general for any element $a$, $a^0$ is the multiplicative identity.

  • Continuous (analytic): when $b$ is real, and $a>0$. Then we define $a^b = \exp(b \ln a)$. Note that here $a$ must be positive. Here it is best to leave $0^0$ undefined, as otherwise the function will be discontinuous.

You can have several more variants. In a monoid, you can define exponentiation $a^n$ where $n$ is a nonnegative integer. In a semigroup, you can define exponentiation where $n$ is a positive integer. In complexes (or an algebraically closed field), you can define multi-valued $a^{p/q}$ for a rational exponent. Cardinals and ordinals have their own exponentiations. The "continuous" exponent can be extended to complex numbers: when $a>0$ then you can define $\exp(b \ln a)$. Yet another exponentiation on complex numbers is multi-valued $\exp(b \operatorname{Ln} a)$.

All those operations are different - they have different domains. Mathematicians are unusually sloppy about which exponentiation they are talking about and use context-dependent $a^b$. (Some programming languages have multiple exponentiation operators to deal with this problem.)

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    I rest my case - I think I've said enough and you can have the last word.2017-03-13
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$0^0=1$, and "$0^0$" is an indeterminate form.

The fact that it's a well defined expression in no way conflicts with the fact that it's an indeterminate form.

$0^0=1$ because it's an empty product. Multiplying by no number is the same as multiplying by $1$; therefore when one multiplies by no number, the product is $1$.

It's indeterminate because one can let the pair $(x,y)$ approach $(0,0)$ along a path that makes the limit of $x^y$ equal to $5$ or to $1$ or to $\infty$, or to any of infinitely many other values.

If one approaches $(0,0)$ along any path that remains between two lines of positive slope, then the limit is $1$.

If $0^0$ were not equal to $1$, then the familiar expansion $ e^z= \frac{z^0}{0!} + \frac{z^1}{1!} + \frac{z^2}{z!} + \cdots $ would fail when $z=0$, since the first term is $\dfrac{0^0}{0!}$.

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The consensus is that if you are going to adopt a convention defining $0^0$, then it should probably be $0^0=1$.

The problem is that there is good reason for basic arithmetic operations on real numbers are continuous, and the real and complex exponentiation operators cannot be continuous at $0^0$.

The solution, IMO, is to honestly recognize that there are multiple exponentiation operators. All of the cases where the convention $0^0 = 1$ is useful are discrete: e.g. in a power series, where we are interested in monomials with integer exponents. The needs we have for discrete exponents are very different from the needs we have for continuous exponents.

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The answer is: The meaning is context-sensitive. This is surprising only if you assume that mathematical terms are context-insensitive. They are not. See x^y by Sam Derbyshire.

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    It is context-sensitive in the sense that it is $1$ in contexts where no math errors were made.2017-02-19
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$\forall x \not= 0, x^0 = 1$

$\forall x > 0, 0^x = 0$

Those are either definitions or conventions chosen to extend formulas (just like you chose $0!=1$).

We can't have both functions $x\mapsto 0^x$ and $x\mapsto x^0$ continuous at $x=0$ no matter how we define $0^0$

Continuous functions are functions that commute with limit, ie $\lim f( x_n) = f( \lim x_n)$

And in this case it doesn't work for at least one of the cases.

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    You gave the standard argument against defining $0^0$. The only reason this argument is effective is because many readers intuitively interpret "can not be extended continuously" as "can not be extended". Before the modern definition of a function, this intuitive interpretation was common, which is why many mathematicians decided to undefine $0^0$ in the 1800's. But just because it is historically understandable, that doesn't make it a valid argument.2017-02-20
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Define $f(x)=x^x$ and compute $\lim_{x\to 0} f(x)$.

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    @Ralph : Yes. That's a suggestion of a definition ; it is not universal.2012-12-15