8
$\begingroup$

Let $R$ be a ring. Determine all $R$-module homomorphisms $\varphi:R\rightarrow R$.

For any $\varphi$, $\ker\varphi$ and im $\varphi$ both have to be submodules of $R$. In this case, that makes them ideals of $R$. So every $\varphi$ is a surjective map from $R$ to an ideal of $R$ so, if $I$ is some ideal of $R$ I'm really looking for every $\varphi:R \twoheadrightarrow I$.

That's about as far as I've managed to get. I'm not even sure what form the answer is supposed to take.

Thanks...

  • 0
    @BrettFrankel Please consider converting your comment into an answer, so that this question gets removed from the [unanswered tab](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/q/3138). If you do so, it is helpful to post it to [this chat room](http://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/9141) to make people aware of it (and attract some upvotes). For further reading upon the issue of too many unanswered questions, see [here](http://meta.stackexchange.com/q/143113), [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/q/1148) or [here](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/a/9868).2013-06-09

1 Answers 1

6

This is essentially an expansion of Brett Frankel's comment. I'm used to work with left actions, so I'll post an answer in that "language". If you work with right actions instead, you have to reverse everything that I say in the remainder (I'll explain the possibilities after the calculation).

So we are looking for all left module homomorphisms $\varphi:R\to R$. I claim that they are all given by multiplications from the right with a particular element $x$, call this map $\rho_x$. First, we have to check that these are indeed left module homomorphisms: $\rho_x(rm)=(rm)x=r(mx)=r\rho_x(m)$ by associativity in $R$ and furthermore $\rho_x(m+n)=(m+n)x=mx+nx=\rho_x(m)+\rho_x(n)$ by distributivity in $R$, so $\rho_x$ is a left module homomorphism.

Now we have to check that two elements $x$ and $y$ give different $\rho_x$ and $\rho_y$. So assume that they give the same map. Then $x=1x=\rho_x(1)=\rho_y(1)=1y=y.$

Thirdly we have to check that each $\varphi$ is in fact a $\rho_x$ for some $x$. For this define $x:=\varphi(1)$. Then we have: $\varphi(r)=\varphi(r\cdot 1)=r\varphi(1)=rx=\rho_x(r)$ Thus $\varphi=\rho_x$.

What we have proven up to now is that $\operatorname{End}(R)\cong R^{op}$ as sets, where $R^{op}$ is the opposite ring of $R$ given by the same underlying abelian group with new multiplication $r*s:=sr$. In fact this is an isomorphism of rings (if you use left notation as I will) which we will check now: $\rho_x\rho_y(r)=\rho_x(ry)=ryx=\rho_{yx}(r)=\rho_{x*y}(r)$ This we have that the map $R^{op}\to \operatorname{End}(R)$, $x\mapsto \rho_x$ is compatible with multiplication. I'll leave it to the reader to check the simpler verification that it is also compatible with addition.


One comment on how you can reverse things: If you use left notation of maps and right action of modules then you would have $\operatorname{End}(R)\cong R$. (without any op's). Similarly if you use right notation and left actions. If you use right notation and right action you would of course have $\operatorname{End}(R)\cong R^{op}$ again.