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Consider the equivalence relation $m\sim n$ defined to be $\frac {m-n}p=z$ (i.e., when $m-n$ is divisible by p) where $m,n,p,z\in \mathbb{Z}$ and $p$ is prime. Now suppose that $a$ is some integer not divisible by $p$. Prove that $[a]^{p-1}=[1]$ where [1] denotes the equivalence class of 1. Another common way to write this is $a^{p-1} \equiv 1$ $\ $(mod $p$).

I understand that there is some intent to prove multiplicative inverses here, but I'm a bit confused as to how one would approach it.

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    @MarcvanLeeuwen: The new duplicate question process seems to have a side effect of removing a comment (pointing to an earlier Q) when the banner is added. In a couple of cases, as here, my comment was slightly more substantive than just a link to the dup, so I'm not entirely happy with the change.2013-02-19

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Hint 1: Consider the group $(\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^{\times}\cong U_{p}$

Hint 2: $\varphi(p)=p-1$ where $\varphi$ is Euler's totient function and $p$ is a prime number

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    @Belgi: Yes, you are right, thanks for the correction!2013-01-16