can anyone check if this formula is plausible ??
$ \frac{1}{\zeta (s)} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{ (-\pi)^{n}(s-1)s}{2n!(s+2n)(s+2n+1)} $
according to the authors this formula would be valid only $ 0 < \Re(s) <1/2 $
the paper may be found at http://arxiv.org/pdf/0709.1389.pdf
The authors claim
"Our representation of $\zeta^{−1}(s)$ for $\Re(s) ∈ (0, 1/2)$ - which seems to an anonymous referee "much too simple" to be true is analogical to the following - rather simple - series representations of $\zeta(s)$
$\zeta(s) = \frac{1}{1-2^{1-s}}\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s} \text{ for } \Re(s) >0, s\neq 1$