If $f$ is a function defined on $[0, 1]$ for which $f'(\frac{1}{2})$
exists but$f'(\frac{1}{2})$ is not an element in $[0,1]$
then f is discontinuous at
$x=\frac{1}{2}$. I need to find the statment is true or false and my conclusions are
- the statement is true since ,if an inverse function exits and the domain of the inverse fuction should be the range of the function,in this case it fails. Is my analogy correct please help?