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Let $A$ be an $n\times n$ matrix and $U$ an invertible $n\times n$ matrix, both with coefficients in $\mathbb R$, and suppose that $ UAU^{-1}=cA $ for some $ c \in \mathbb R,c \neq 0, \pm 1$. How can we prove that $ A^n=0 $?

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    For more interest: (1) $A$ is an operator on infinite-dimensional Banach space, or (2) a matrix, but scalars other than $\mathbb R$.2012-02-26

2 Answers 2

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$UAU^{-1}$ and $A$ have the same eigenvalues. IF $\lambda$ is a nonzero eigenvalue of $A$, then $c\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $cA$, hence an eigenvalue of $A$. Iterating this process, $c^n\lambda$ is an eigenvalue for every $n$, but since $c\neq 0, 1, -1$, we would have infinitely many eigenvalues, a contradiction.

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    Agreed. I think we posted within a few seconds of eachother. I voted yours up.2012-02-26
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The eigenvalues of $cA$ are $c$ times those of $A$. Since $A$ and $cA$ are conjugate, they have the same eigenvalues. Thus the map $\lambda \mapsto c\lambda$ is a permutation of the eigenvalues of $A$. Applying this permutation repeatedly it follows that for some integer $m$, $c^m=1$ if $A$ has a non-zero eigenvalue, contradicting your choice of $c$ (btw, $c \neq 0$ is obviously not necessary, and I am assuming that $R=\mathbb{R}$ is the real numbers). Hence all eigenvalues of $A$ are zero---i.e. $A$ is nilpotent. Since it is $n$ by $n$ the $n$th power of $A$ must already be zero (Cayley-Hamilton).

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    @Steve thanks. I used to call it *similar* matrix. Now I saw the definition on Wikipedia.2012-02-25