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Any help in solving the following problem would be greatly appreciated:

Let $f, g_1, g_2$ be functions from $\mathbb R$ to $\mathbb R$, with $g_1(x) \leq f(x) \leq g_2(x)$, for all $x \in \mathbb R$. Suppose that, for some $p \in \mathbb R$, we have $\lim_{x \rightarrow p} g_1(x) = \lim_{x \rightarrow p} g_2(x) = c$. Show that $ \lim_{x\rightarrow p} f(x) = c,$ as well.

I've spent hours on it and haven't come up with anything worth posting.

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    This had been copied from an email I think or a forum. The weird>signs were at the beginning of each line. I have removed them.2012-11-30

1 Answers 1

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HINT: Let $\epsilon>0$. There are real numbers $\delta_1,\delta_2>0$ such that $|g_1(x)-c|<\frac{\epsilon}2\quad\text{whenever}\quad 0<|x-p|<\delta_1$ and $|g_2(x)-c|<\frac{\epsilon}2\quad\text{whenever}\quad 0<|x-p|<\delta_2\;.$

Now show that

$|f(x)-c|<\epsilon\quad\text{whenever}\quad 0<|x-p|<\min\{\delta_1,\delta_2\}\;.$

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    @Neil: You’re welcome. Experience helps in seeing where to start, but I agree that the basic idea isn’t hard.2012-12-03