Considering the (infinite) set of all positive integers that are a product of $2$ primes only, represented in binary $100...01$.
Question: is the distribution of the proportion of $0,1$ digits "uniform" (meaning $Pr(0) = Pr(1)$) ? Or should we expect an asymmetric distribution (eg. the relative frequency of "$1$"s to exceed that of the "$0$"s) ?