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If you have three polynomials $f, g$ and $h$. And the following is true:$\int^{1}_{-1}f\cdot g=\int^{1}_{-1}f\cdot h$. Does this directly imply that $h=g$ (assuming $f$ is not the zero polynomial)? I think it does imply, but I am not sure. Thanks.

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    What part of `For every given$f$and g` is not clear enough?2012-12-19

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Let $f(x)=x$, $g(x)=1$ and $h(x)=1+x^2$. Then $\int_{-1}^1 f(g-h) = -\int_{-1}^1 x^3\, dx =0.$

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    Roughly speaking, $g-h$ is orthogonal in $L^2(-1,1)$ to $f$. So your question is whether the orthogonality of a polynomial to a *single* polynomial implies that the first polynomial is zero. This is hopeless, since the vector space of all polynomials has infinite dimension.2012-12-19
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No. Take $f(x)=x$, $g(x)=1$, $h(x)=0$.

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The following might be interesting to you: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legendre_polynomials#Orthogonality

You expand your $f, g, h$ in terms of these polynomials and use their orthogonality to easily see and predict the outcome of the integral. Note that the Legendre polynomials can represent any power of an arbitrary polynomial.

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Two diff polynomials can yield same integral value(we can also say it as grazed same area) in same given limits(a,b) in this case (-1,1)

it doesnt mean both polynomials are same.

let f.g=k,f.h=l

and integral k in -1 to 1 =integral l in -1 to 1.

it doesnt mean k and l are same.