Question is pretty much explained in the title. My inclination is to say "yes", but I'm unsure.
Thanks in advance!
Question is pretty much explained in the title. My inclination is to say "yes", but I'm unsure.
Thanks in advance!
Yes. $\displaystyle \left( \frac{a}{b}\right) ^{\frac{p}{q}}$ is a root of $\displaystyle b^p x^q - a^p = 0$.