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The question is:

$0\leq\alpha\leq \frac{1}{4}$, We'll define $a_1=\alpha$, $a_{n+1}=\alpha+a_n^2$. Prove $(a_n)_{n=1}^\infty$ is converging and find it's limit.

I'm really confused about it, so I tried taking the private case of $\alpha=\frac{1}{4}$ but I still don't really understand it.
$a_1=\frac{1}{4}$
$a_2=\frac{5}{16}$
$a_3=\frac{89}{256}$
And I'm not really sure where this is going to or what I'm supposed to do with it.

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Well, there is a way that often works on problems like this. First, suppose that the sequence does converge and find its limit. Hint: if $(a_n) \to x$, then $x = \frac{1}{4} + x^2$.

Next, when you've found the supposed limit value $x$, you'll just need to prove that $a_n - x \to 0$, and the problem will be solved. In the actual solution you can even omit the part where you determine the value of $x$. You can just say out of the blue something like "Let's show that $(a_n)$ converges to ", and then go on proving that $a_n - x \to 0$. This looks cool and makes people think that you've come up with the limit value using your incredible intuition )).

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    Nexcio How do you prove that $a_n-x\to0$?2012-11-28
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Prove that the sequence is increasing and bounded. Both using induction.
Then find the limit as Dan Shved proposed.