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Is there an easy way to see that the Cantor function is not absolutely continuous that directly uses the definition of absolutely continuous?

5 Answers 5

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A function $f: E \to \mathbb{R}$ is absolutely continuous on an interval $E$ if for every $\epsilon > 0$ there is a $\delta > 0$ such that whenever a finite sequence of pairwise disjoint sub-intervals $(x_k, y_k)$ of $E$ satisfies

$ \sum_{k} |y_{k} - x_{k}| < \delta$

then

$\sum_{k} |f(y_{k}) - f(x_{k})| < \epsilon$

Put in words, an absolutely continuous function does not fluctuate on a set of measure zero. To see that the Cantor function is not absolutely continuous, pick $\epsilon < 1$. Then, for every $\delta > 0$, I can find a collection of intervals $(x_{k},y_{k})$ that cover the Cantor points in $[0,1]$ such that

$ \sum_{k} |y_{k} - x_{k}| < \delta$

this is because the Cantor set has measure zero. However, since the Cantor function only changes on the Cantor set,

$\sum_{k} |f(y_{k}) - f(x_{k})| = 1$

and absolute continuity is violated.


More generally, note that the Cantor function is singular. It is easy to prove (and feels right intuitively) that an absolutely continuous, singular function must be constant. However, the Cantor function is far from constant.

  • 4
    Isaac Solomon: Well, in that case you probably should not write that finding a finite cover of $C$ with measure smaller than $\delta$ is possible *because $C$ has measure zero*. As you wrote yourself, this is not the case and is rather due to the specific construction of $C$.2015-12-06
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One definition of absolutely continuous functions is that they map sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero. However, the cantor ternary function maps the cantor set (of measure zero) onto $[0,1]$.

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Let $f$ be the Cantor function. $f$ is increasing not negative, $f(0)=0$ and $f(1)=1$. Then $f$ is differentiable a.e. and since $f$ is constant on every interval removed in the construction of the Cantor set, $f^\prime=0$ a.e.

Once we assume that $f$ is absolutely continuous, we have $\int_0^1 f^\prime=f(1)-f(0),$ but this says that $0=1$. Thus $f$ can not be absolutely continuous.

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    Potential typo: "uniformly" should probably be "absolutely" (both times).2012-06-11
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The variation of the Cantor function on each approximation $C_n$ of the Cantor set is $1$. The measure of $C_n$ goes to zero when $n\to\infty$. Ergo.

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A function is absolutely continuous if and only if it satisfies the (Lebesgue) fundamental theorem of calculus. Since $f'=0$ a.e., $f$ satisfies the fundamental theorem calculus if and only if

$f(1)-f(0) = \int_{0}^{1} f' = 0 $

which we know is false.

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    Ahh he wanted it direct, missed that. I kind of thought leo's answer didn't have the direct punch that makes it easy to follow for someone just learning the subject, so I decided to share this.2016-01-21