Let $R$ be a finite ring with identity $1$, and assume $\exists x,y\in R$ such that $ xy=1$. How can I show it implies $yx=1$?
Left inverse implies right inverse in a finite ring
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1It is true for any noetherian ring, so it's true in this case! – 2017-02-26
3 Answers
Hint: $xy=1$ implies that left multiplication by $y$ is one-to-one. Can you draw a conclusion whether or not there is a $z$ such that $yz=1$?
If so, you can complete the argument by showing that $z=x$.
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0@ALannister I added an answer I always give for that, since I can't seem to find a link to one I wrote previously. – 2017-02-27
Hint $\ $ As often occurs, this result on numbers is a special case of a result on functions. namely, consider $\rm\:x,y\:$ as left-multiplication maps $\rm\:f(r) = xr,\ g(r) = yr,\:$ then apply the following
Lemma $\rm\ fg = 1\ \Rightarrow\ gf = 1\ $ for maps $\rm\:f,g\:$ on a finite set $\rm\:R.$
$\rm(1)\ \ \ fg = 1\ \Rightarrow\ g\ is\ 1\!-\!1\:$ by $\rm\:f\:$ of $\rm\:g(a) = g(b)\ \Rightarrow\ a = b $
$\rm(2)\ \ \ g\ is\ 1\!-\!1\ \Rightarrow\ g\:$ is onto, since $\rm\:R\:$ is finite
$\rm(3)\ \ \ g\ is\ onto\ \Rightarrow\ gf = 1\:$ by $\rm\ a = g(b) = g(fg(b)) = gf(a)$
Remark $\ $ In fact we may view the ring as the set of such maps (left-regular representation), where the elements of $\rm\:R\:$ are essentially viewed as $1$-dimensional matrices. Then the above is analogous to a well-known result about matrices, e.g. see my post here where I prove $\rm\ AB = I\:\Rightarrow\; BA = 1,\:$ or, equivalently, $\rm\:B\:$ injective $\rm \Rightarrow$ $\rm\: B\:$ surjective, by exploiting the pigeonhole principle. See also other posts in that thread which clarify the fundamental role played by the pigeonhole principle. See also this question on Dedekind-finite rings, i.e. rings where $\rm\:xy = 1\:\Rightarrow\: yx = 1.$
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0could you help me with this problem: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2163962/need-to-prove-that-a-given-nonzero-ring-r-with-no-zero-divisors-has-both-left It's similar. If you could, I'd be eternally grateful! :) – 2017-02-27
Let $f_y\colon:R\rightarrow R,\ z\mapsto yz$ then: $f_y(z)=f_y(t)\iff yz=yt\Rightarrow x(yz)=x(yt)\Rightarrow (xy)z=(xy)t\Rightarrow z=t$ hence $f_y$ is one to one. Now since $R$ is finite then the map $f_y$ is bijective hence there's a unique $z\in R$ s.t. $f_y(z)=yz=1$ so $x(yz)=(xy)z=z=x$ and conclude.
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0Another way to understand this argument is functionally: if left-multiplication by $y$ were non-injective, then post-composing it with left-multiplication by $x$ would necessarily yield a non-injective map, meaning multiplication by $xy$, or $1$, absurd. – 2013-07-21