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This is a problem in PMA Rudin p.165

Let $C_m=(-\frac{1}{m^2},-\frac{1}{(m+1)^2}), \forall m\in\mathbb{N}$

Define $f_n=\frac{1}{1+n^2x}$ on its natural domain,$\forall n\in \mathbb{N}$.

Define $f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} f_n(x)$ where $x\in \mathbb{R}\setminus (\{0\} \cup \{-\frac{1}{n^2}\in \mathbb{R}|n\in\mathbb{N}\})$.

Then $f$ is well-defined.

I have shown that $\sum f_n\rightarrow f$ uniformly on $C_m$ for any $m\in\mathbb{N}$.

Now, i don't know how to prove that $\sum f_n\rightarrow f$ uniformly on $f$'s natural domain. Is there a theorem for this?

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    @D$a$vid i got it! Th$a$nk you2012-12-20

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