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Let $n>30$. Then prove there exists a natural number $1 such that $(n,m)=1$ and $m$ is not prime.

$(m,n)$ denotes the greatest common divisor of $m$ and $n$. Thanks

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    I took the liberty to make the inequality 1 strict, to avoid trivial answers.2012-11-27

3 Answers 3

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Since $30=2\cdot3\cdot5$ and $2^2,3^2,5^2<30$ it's enough to consider the case $30\mid n$ (if not take $m=2^2$ or $m=3^2$ or $m=5^2$). Assume that to be the case.

Let $p$ be the smallest prime with $p\nmid n$. Then $(n,p^2)=1$ and $p^2.
This is because $31$ is the largest primorial prime less than the next prime(of the primes in the primorial) squared (see this and for a proof Hagen von Eitzen's answer).
Take $m=p^2$.

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Let $p_k$ be the largest prime for which $n$ is divisible by $p_k\#=2\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot\ldots\cdot p_{k-1}\cdot p_k$. Clearly $(n,m)=1$ if we let $m=p_{k+1}^2$. We need to show that $m. By the Bertrand postulate, $\frac12p_k. But this follows from $m<4p_k^2$ and

  • $n\ge p_k\#\ge 30p_{k-1}p_k> 15p_k^2$ if $p_k\ge 11$
  • $n\ge p_k\# = 210>11^2=m$ if $p_k=7$
  • $30|n$ and $n>30$, hence $n\ge 60$, and $m=49$ if $p_k=5$
  • $m\le 25 if $p_k\le 3$
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Hint: do you know a proof that there are an infinite number of primes? If you find two of them not factors of $n, \dots$

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    @ThomasAndrews: true enough.2012-11-27