This question is either very obvious or by nature unsolvable in a general case. I Google'd around for a solution to no avail.
Given an integral transform of kernel K across some interval I as a subset of reals, what is the method for find the inverse kernel K^-1 of some interval H? Obviously an inverse does not exist in all cases (eg K(t,s) = 0 ), but is there some general method for finding one if it does?
I found some interesting information on the dirac delta function, but the only expressions I was able to deduce from it were useless.
Thanks for you help!