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Artin defines an ideal $I$ as :

  1. $I$ is a subgroup of $R^+$
  2. If $a \in I$ and $r \in R$ , then $ra \in I$

And Principal Ideal is defined as

"In any ring, the set of multiples of a particular element $a$ , forms an ideal called a principal ideal generated by $a$"

My question is:

If the set of multiples of a particular element is called principal ideal then that automatically is one of the properties of an ideal (Prop 2), then is every ideal a principal ideal?

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    for example every field is$a$PID, because the only ideals of$a$field $F$ are $\{0\}$ and $F$.2013-12-29

1 Answers 1

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No. If $I$ is an ideal and $a\in I$ then every multiple of $a$ also belongs to $I$. But the converse is not true — there might be no one element $a\in I$ such that every element of $I$ is a multiple of $a$.

Consider for example the ring ${\mathbb Z}[x,y]$. Let $I$ be the set of polynomial $p(x,y)$ such that $p(0,0) = 0$. It is easy to verify that that $I$ is an ideal. However, there is no element $a\in I$ that divides every element in $I$. (In particular, there is no element $a\in I$ that divides both polynomials $x$ and $y$.)

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    No Kirk it was my inability to parse such an interesting concept, the "excitement" to understand this and my motor skills all jamming my thought process that$I$messed up what$I$wanted to say in the first place :) Thanks for your patience2012-09-09