If $f_n = 0$ a.e. for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$, does $\sum f_n \rightarrow 0$ uniformly a.e. to 0 as well?
Does a series of functions that are 0 a.e. converge uniformly to the function 0 a.e. as well?
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measure-theory
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0@user1770201: do you mean that the series converges uniformly and the limit is$0$a.e., or that the series converges uniformly a.e. to 0? – 2012-12-20
1 Answers
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Hint: the set of $x$ such that there is at least one $k$ with $f_k(x) \not = 0$ has measure $0$.