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Let $(f_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of locally summable non-negative functions on $\mathbb{R}$.

Suppose that $\int_{a}^{b}x^2\,f_n(x)\,dx \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}0$ for every $a,b\in\mathbb{R}$ ,

1) can I conclude that $\int_{a}^{b}f_n(x)\,dx \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}0$ for every $a,b\in\mathbb{R}$ ?

2) can I conclude that $f_n(x) \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}0$ for Lebesgue-almost every $x\in\mathbb{R}$ ?

I think the answer to 1) should be yes, I tried to prove it using a change of variable ($y=x^3$) but I didn't menage.

Edit:I added the hypothesis $f_n\geq0$ later.

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Neither are true. For example, $f_n (x) = \frac {1}{nx}$ on the interval $[0,1]$. This should give you a hint about what you failed to consider.

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    There are 2 ways to 'fix' it. Both of these are common analysis 'tricks'. 1) Make $f_n=0$ for some small portion around 0 (up to you to determine exactly how small), since we're concerned that $ \int \frac {1}{nx}$ is undefined. 2) use $\frac {1}{nx^{1+ \alpha}}$. (I leave you to figure out if \alpha > 0 or \alpha < 0.)2012-12-29