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Is there a sequence in $(0,1)$ such that the product of all its terms is $\frac{1}{2}$?

7 Answers 7

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If you take any sequence $a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots$ whose sum is $\log_b (1/2)$, then $b^{a_1}, b^{a_2}, b^{a_3},\ldots$ is a sequence whose product is $1/2$.

Later note: Notice that $\frac 1 2 + \frac 1 4 + \frac 1 8 + \frac 1 {16} + \cdots = 1$. If you multiply every term by $\log_b \frac 1 2$ then you get a series whose sum is $\log_b \frac 1 2$.

Still later note: If $b>1$, then $\log_b(1/2)<0$, and $b^{a_n}$ will be in $(0,1)$ if $a_n<0$.

  • 0
    If $a_n=(1/2^n)\log_b1/2$ then $b^{a_n}=1/2^{1/2^n}$.2012-07-11
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$x_n=2^{-1/2^n}\qquad (n\geqslant1)$

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Try to find a sequence such that $\frac{n+1}{2n}=\prod_{j=2}^nx_j$ (it will do the job). We have $x_2=3/4$ and $x_{n+1}=\frac{\prod_{j=2}^{n+1}x_j}{\prod_{j=2}^nx_j}=\frac{n+2}{2(n+1)}\frac{2n}{n+1}=\frac{n(n+2)}{(n+1)^2}=\frac{n^2+2n}{(n+1)^2}<\frac{n^2+2n\color{red}{+1}}{(n+1)^2}=1.$ So $x_n=\frac{n^2-1}{n^2}$ does the job.

  • 4
    @HassanMuhammad: As Davide Giraudo mentions, you can just shift the sequence. Let $m = n-1$.2019-03-04
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How about this telescoping product? Let $a_n=2-1/n$ and then let $x_n=a_n/a_{n+1}$. Then $ \prod_{k=1}^n x_k = \left(\frac{a_1}{a_2}\right)\left(\frac{a_2}{a_3}\right)\cdots\left(\frac{a_n}{a_{n+1}}\right)=\frac{a_1}{a_{n+1}}=\frac{n+1}{2n+1} $ It's easy to verify that $0 and the partial products obviously tend to $1/2$.

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    I like the telescoping product, too.2012-07-11
4

Take any decreasing sequence $(\pi_k)_{k\ge0}$ such that $\pi_0=1;\quad \forall k\gt0,\pi_k \lt \pi_{k-1};\quad\lim_{k\to\infty}\pi_k=1/2.$ We simply set $(\pi_k)_{k\ge1}$ as a sequence of partial products, $\pi_k=\prod_{n=1}^k x_n,\text{ where }x_n=\pi_n/\pi_{n-1},$ guaranteeing that $\prod_{n=1}^\infty x_n=1/2.$

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    As long as the sequence $\pi_n$ is positive and strictly decreasing.2012-07-10
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Recall either of Euler's two famous expressions for $\sin x$: $\sin x=x\prod_{n=1}^\infty \cos\left(\frac{x}{2^n}\right),$ or $\sin x=x\prod_{n=1}^\infty\left(1-\frac{x^2}{\pi^2n^2}\right).$

Now let $x=\dfrac{\pi}{6}$.

Or else use the following formula of Viète $\frac{2}{\pi}=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}}}{2}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}}}}{2}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}}}}}{2}\cdots,$ and multiply both sides by $\dfrac{\pi}{4}$.

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    This also gives $\prod_{n\ge2}\left(1-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)=\frac{1}{2}.$ (Though it is telescoping and thus easier..)2012-07-10
1

Here is another:

$ \frac{1}{2}=(e^{\frac{1}{2}}-1)\prod_{k=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{2}{e^{2^{-(k+1)}}+1} \right) $

See here.