Suppose I have two domains, $A\subset B$, where $A$ is Dedekind and $\operatorname{Frac}(A)=\operatorname{Frac}(B)$. I also know that $B$ is both integrally closed and has height $1$. Is $B$ necessarily Dedekind? If not, I'd love to see a counterexample.
(Note: I'm adding the homework tag since this is motivated by (and would finish off) a homework problem about global function fields, although I now know another way, with slightly stronger hypotheses, to get the necessary result with Riemann-Roch.)