Is it correct to state that
$\frac{d}{ds} \int_{u=0}^{u=s} f(u)du = f(s)$
if $f(u)$ is continuous?
If so, what is the relevant theorem in action? If not, what else would be needed?
Is it correct to state that
$\frac{d}{ds} \int_{u=0}^{u=s} f(u)du = f(s)$
if $f(u)$ is continuous?
If so, what is the relevant theorem in action? If not, what else would be needed?
$\frac{d}{ds} \int_{0}^{s}f(u)du=\frac{d}{ds}(F(s)-F(0))=F'(s)=f(s)$ since $F(0)$ is a constant.