Apparently answered in comments:
Nope, not really. It's clear $y=−x$ is a solution for $C=0$. Perhaps you'd get more useful responses if you posted the original problem you're working on.. – anon Apr 22 at 23:31
No, you cannot factor $y$ from the left hand side. What is the differential equation you were trying to solve? – Arturo Magidin Apr 22 at 23:31
Ok I posted the original problem. Don't think I made a mistake elsewhere but possible. – dacc Apr 22 at 23:34
Are there no initial conditions? Otherwise it looks like you'll have to be content with this implicit solution. – anon Apr 22 at 23:39
ok thanks, guess that's it. @sdcvvc ah thanks for catching that sign – dacc Apr 22 at 23:41
Hm, I don't think what I said was relevant. It seems anon is right and either you have a condition giving $C=0$, or the implicit solution is all what you can get... – sdcvvc Apr 22 at 23:45