Can we say that
$E \left(\frac{n}{n-1}X \right) = E(X)$
because $n/(n-1)$ is basically equal to 1. Or can we not say this? I am just factoring out the n/(n-1).
$n$ is the sample size.
Can we say that
$E \left(\frac{n}{n-1}X \right) = E(X)$
because $n/(n-1)$ is basically equal to 1. Or can we not say this? I am just factoring out the n/(n-1).
$n$ is the sample size.
The proposed identity is not true, but $ \lim_{n\to \infty}E \left(\frac{n}{n-1}X \right) = E(X), $ and sometimes people might have a reason to care about that.