There's a small remark I don't quite follow in some reading I've been doing.
Let $A$ be integrally closed in its quotient field $K$, and let $B$ be its integral closure in a finite Galois extension $L$, with group $G$. Let $\mathfrak{p}$ be maximal in $A$, and $\mathfrak{P}$ maximal in $B$ lying above $\mathfrak{p}$. Denote by $G_\mathfrak{P}$ the subgroup of $G$ of automorphisms such that $\sigma\mathfrak{P}=\mathfrak{P}$. Denote by $L^\text{dec}$ the fixed field of $G_\mathfrak{P}$, and let $B^\text{dec}$ be the integral closure of $A$ in $L^\text{dec}$, and let $\mathfrak{Q}=\mathfrak{P}\cap B^\text{dec}$.
It's remarked that $\mathfrak{P}$ is the only prime of $B$ lying above $\mathfrak{Q}$. Why is this?
I know that if $A$ is an integral domain integrally closed in its quotient field $K$, and $L$ is a finite Galois extension of $K$, then the Galois group acts transitively on the set of prime ideals in the integral closure of $A$ in $L$ which lie above some maximal ideal $\mathfrak{p}$ of $A$. Does this fact somehow immediately imply that $\mathfrak{P}$ is the unique prime of $B$ lying above $\mathfrak{Q}$? Maybe it's clear but I'm strugging, unfortunately. Thank you.