Suppose we have $f:X\to Y$, where $f$ is a bijection. How would we show that $(f^{-1})^{-1}=f$
Prove that the inverse of an inverse is the function itself. $(f^{-1})^{-1}=f$
2
$\begingroup$
calculus
real-analysis
-
0Thank you I completely understood it now. I was just missing that much I proved it and happy with the end result as well. Thanks for the tips. – 2012-10-08
1 Answers
1
Hint: If $(x,y)\in f$ then $(y,x)\in f^{-1}$ and vice versa.
-
0@user43964: You can use what Yunone noted you above as well. I think that approach is faster. – 2012-10-08