Possible Duplicate:
If $f^2$ is Riemann Integrable is $f$ always Riemann Integrable?
Example of a function f such that $f^2$ is Riemann-Stieltjes integrable on [a,b] but f is not.
I was considering f=$(\chi_{\mathbb{Q}}-\chi_{\mathbb{I}})$ the difference of the characteristic functions for the rationals and irrationals respectively. I know that this is not Riemann Stieltjes integrable but I'm wondering if $f^2$ is.
$f^2$=$(\chi_{\mathbb{Q}}-\chi_{\mathbb{I}})^2$=$\chi_{\mathbb{Q}}^2 +\chi_{\mathbb{I}}^2 - 2\chi_{\mathbb{I}}\chi_{\mathbb{Q}}$ = $\chi_{\mathbb{Q}} + \chi_{\mathbb{I}}$ $\equiv 1$ on [a,b].
Is a correct way of viewing this?