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Here is an old Berkeley Preliminary Exam question (Spring 79).

Let $f : \mathbb{R}^n-\{0\} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be differentiable. Suppose

$\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_j}(x)$ exists for each $j=1, \cdots ,n$.

(1) Can $f$ be extended to a continuous map from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}$?

(2) Assuming continuity at the origin, is $f$ differentiable from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}$?

End of question.

In the book by De Souza, the following solution is given for (1)

No, with the counter example $f(x,y)=\frac{xy}{x^2+y^2}$ for $(x,y)\neq (0,0)$.

This is not an extendable function, but $\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_j}(x)$ does not exists. I think the solution is wrong, any other correct counter example?

Thanks

2 Answers 2

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Let $n =1$ and $f(x) = \text{signum}(x)$. Surely $f$ satisfies the conditions and surely it cannot be extended to a continuous function.

Though it feels like cheating...

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    Sorry, I retract my previous comment.2012-12-04
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In polar coordinates, with $\theta \in [0,2\pi), r \in (0,\infty)$: $f(r,\theta) = \sin \theta$. This takes every value in $[-1,1]$ in every neighbourhood of $(0,0)$.

Edited to add: As KWO points out in the comments, this example is flawed.

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    OK, sorry. You are right (except that it's $f_x$ and $f_y$ that must tend to $0$, not $f_\theta$.)2012-12-05