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Why does this work (for all $a>0$). How can you prove the formula
$\lim_{L\rightarrow \infty}\int\limits_{-a^2}^{a^2} \frac{f(x) \sin(Lx)}{\pi x} dx=f(0)$

Does it work for all functions f?

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    So does it hold for all continuous functions?2012-08-27

0 Answers 0