1
$\begingroup$

let $(G,*)$ a group order $p^2q^2$ such that $q\nmid p^2 -1 $ y $p\nmid q^2 -1$ then $G$ is abelian. for Sylow theorem $n_p\equiv 1\mod (p)$ then $n_p = 1, q, q^2 $ but $n_p\neq p^2$ the same form $n_q \neq q^2$ but what next??

  • 2
    Possible duplicate of [A group of order $p^2q$ will be abelian](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/153657/a-group-of-order-p2q-will-be-abelian)2016-10-04

1 Answers 1

3

You can show that your group $G$ is as $H\times K$ wherein $H$ and $K$ are normal sylow $p$-subgroup and normal sylow $q$-subgroup respectively. Now, since $H$ and $K$ are abelian groups, so is $G$ itself.Use what Jyrki noted above to show that you have only one sylow $p$-subgroup and one sylow $q$-subgroup.

  • 0
    Babak & groups = :-)2013-03-14