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I think I'm being a bit slow here.

Lemma: Every algebraic integer is the root of some monic irreducible polynomial with coefficients in $\mathbb Z$.

Corollary: The only algebraic integers in $\mathbb Q$ are the ordinary integers.

I'm struggling to see how this corollary follows from the lemma. Suppose $\alpha$ is an algebraic integer. Then there is a monic, irreducible $f$ with integer coefficients such that $f(\alpha) = 0$. Why can't $\alpha$ be a non-integer?

Thanks

  • 2
    What is your definition of an algebraic integer? Usually your lemma is the definition.2012-01-17

2 Answers 2

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Say $f(X)=X^n+a_{n-1}X^{n-1}+\cdots+a_1X+a_0$ and $\alpha=p/q$ is a root in simplest form. Then

$q^nf(p/q)=p^n+a_{n-1}p^{n-1}q+\cdots+a_1pq^{n-1}+a_0q^n=0.$

Reduce both sides modulo $q$ and invoke unique factorization (the fundamental theorem of arithmetic) to derive a contradiction (this is unless $q=1$, of course).

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Then $[\mathbb{Q}(\alpha):\mathbb{Q}] = 1$ since $\alpha \in \mathbb{Q}$, so the minimal polynomial has degree 1. You're done.