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I noticed that the horizontal pivot line (or $y$-coordinate of the centroid) under the curve $y=\sin^2 x$ between $0$ and $\pi$ is exactly $\frac{3}{8}$. There may be no reason for me to find this strange, but it's just so neat. Does anyone know why this is?

$\frac{1}{2}\frac{\int_0^{\pi} (\sin^4 x) dx}{\int_0^{\pi} (\sin^2x) dx} = \frac{3}{8}.$

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    @Rahul: It is at first blush a little surprising to get such a simple rational out of a context in which $\pi$ plays a prominent rôle. It’s perhaps rather less surprising after one has some experience, but I think that a beginning student should be commended for wondering whether there’s a simple, intuitive explanation.2012-02-11

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I had a mistaken argument before. It occurs to me to wonder how you know the value $3/8.$ The simplest way to find the two integrals is by using the identities $ \sin^2 x = -\frac{1}{2} \cos {2 x} \; + \; \frac{1}{2} $ and $ \sin^4 x = \frac{1}{8} \cos {4 x} \; - \; \frac{1}{2} \cos {2 x} \; + \; \frac{3}{8}$

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    @RahulNarain, I will draw some pictures and see what happens.2012-02-11
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I suppose a general explanation for this phenomenon might be that the average value of $\sin^n\,x$ or $\cos^n\,x$ over $[0,2\pi]$ is pretty simple; it's just $\frac1{2^n}\binom{n}{n/2}$ if $n$ is even, and $0$ if $n$ is odd. This is clear if you write $\cos^n\,x = \left(\frac12(e^{ix}+e^{-ix})\right)^n$ and apply the binomial theorem; after integration over a period, only the constant term will remain.

A corollary is that if you take any polynomial over $\cos x$ and $\sin x$ whose coefficients are rational numbers, its average value over $[0, 2\pi]$ will be a rational number.

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    I asked for a combinatorial proof of an equivalent sum [here](http://math.stackexchange.com/q/80649/2370). In the question I proposed using lattice paths, but the answer I ended up finding uses colored permutations. I would love to see a connection between either of these and the average value of $\sin^n x$ or $\cos^n x$. I don't immediately see such a connection in either case, though.2012-02-12
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To determine the value of this quotient you don't even need to compute the integrals: $\int_0^\pi\sin^4 x\ dx= - \sin^3 x\ \cos x\Bigr|_0^\pi + \int_0^\pi 3\sin^2 x\ \cos^2 x\ dx = 3\int_0^\pi \sin^2 x\ dx- 3\int_0^\pi \sin^4 x\ dx\ . $