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Is it possible for the number created by ordering $1$ to $n$ where $n \geq 1$ be a palindrome?

I've been thinking about this problem for a while now, and have come up with nothing useful.

If anybody knows the solution, or the break-through idea, it'll be much appreciated. It's from a Russian 1996 Olympiad:

Can the number obtained by writing the numbers from $1$ to $n$ in order (for some $n>1$) be a palindrome?

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    OP: The question was answered, and the link J.M. gave in the comment works $f$ine $f$or me, showing that indeed there is a proof at the top of page 43. If you don't have access for any reason I've [uploaded it for you](http://i.imgur.com/6v4kB.png).2012-02-18

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