2
$\begingroup$

In my complex analysis class we've shown that if $\Omega \subset \Bbb C^n$ is compact and if $H^2(\Omega)$ is the set of square integrable holomorphic functions on $\Omega$, then the Bergman kernel is defined as $K(z,w)=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\phi_j(z)\overline{\phi_j(w)}$ where $\{\phi_j\}_{j=1}^{\infty}$ is an orthonormal basis for $H^2(\Omega)$. However, my professor claimed without proof that the Bergman kernel is uniformly convergent. I'm unable to prove this and every place in the literature I've looked at just states it as a fact, so even a simple proof of this property would be much appreciated!

  • 0
    This just came up in a different question: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/212079/uniform-convergence-of-the-bergman-kernels-orthonormal-basis-representation-on2012-10-18

0 Answers 0