Is there any reason that, on a projective variety X, if a line bundle L has a (non-zero) section and also its dual has a section then this implies that L is the trivial line bundle?
If a line bundle and its dual both have a section (on a projective variety) does this imply that the bundle is trivial?
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algebraic-geometry
projective-geometry
vector-bundles
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0Your question is not a duplicate (and I like this question), but perhaps the answer should be accompanied by this link which finishes the proof: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1397283/346324 – 2017-11-23
1 Answers
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Yes, there is a reason for $L$ to be trivial and here it is:
Let $0\neq s\in \Gamma(X,L)$ and $0\neq \sigma\in \Gamma(X,L^*)$ be two non zero sections.
Then $s\otimes \sigma\in \Gamma(X,L\otimes L^*)=\Gamma(X,\mathcal O)$ is a constant since $X$ is complete: $s\otimes \sigma =c\in k$ (the base field).
Now, since $s$ and $\sigma$ are non-zero there is a non-empty open subset $U\subset X$ on which both do not vanish and on which $s\otimes \sigma=c $ does not vanish either: in other words $c\neq0\in k$ .
Since $s\otimes \sigma =c\neq 0$, a non-zero constant, vanishes nowhere we conclude that a fortiori $s$ vanishes nowhere, so that $L$ is trivial, as announced, since $ s\in \Gamma(X,L)$ .
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0thanks to both of you. I tried to play with tensoring them together but didn't think to restrict to some open subset! – 2012-06-06