You can’t show that every $x\in(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A$ is a limit point of $(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A$, because it isn’t true.
Let $A=\left\{\left\langle n,\frac1m\right\rangle\in\Bbb R^2:n\in\Bbb Z\text{ and }m\in\Bbb Z^+\right\}\;,$ and let $F=A\cup\{\langle n,0\rangle:n\in\Bbb Z\}$. Then $F$ is a closed subset of $\Bbb R^2$, and $A$ is its set of isolated points, so $(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A=F\setminus A=\{\langle n,0\rangle:n\in\Bbb Z\}$. This is a closed, discrete set in $\Bbb R^2$: it has no limit points.
Corrected:
Did you want to show that every $x\in(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A$ is a limit point of $F$? That is true. Suppose that some point $x\in(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A$ is not a limit point of $F$; then $x$ has an open neighborhood $U$ such that $U\cap F\subseteq\{x\}$. $U\cap F\ne\varnothing$, since $x\in\operatorname{cl}F$, so $U\cap F=\{x\}$. But then $x$ is an isolated point of $F$, i.e., $x\in A$, contradicting the choice of $x\in(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A$.
It’s not necessarily true that $\operatorname{cl}(F\setminus A)=(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A$; we might have $F=A=\{1/n:n\in\Bbb Z^+\}$ in $\Bbb R$, for example, in which case $F\setminus A=\varnothing$, but $(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A=\{0\}$.
It is true, however, that $\operatorname{cl}(F\setminus A)\subseteq(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A$, since $(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A$ is a closed set containing $F\setminus A$. It is also true that $(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A=\operatorname{Lim}F$, the set of limit points of $F$. We saw above, it is true that $(\operatorname{cl}F)\setminus A\subseteq\operatorname{Lim}F$, and the opposite inclusion is clear.