I know that if two continuous $2\pi$ -periodic functions $f,g$ have the same Fourier coefficients then $f=g$.
Is the assumption about $2\pi$ periodicity of functions essential?
Thanks
I know that if two continuous $2\pi$ -periodic functions $f,g$ have the same Fourier coefficients then $f=g$.
Is the assumption about $2\pi$ periodicity of functions essential?
Thanks