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Possible Duplicate:
How can you prove that a function has no closed form integral?

(Forgive my crude lingo)

Why do some integrals seem to be unsolvable; that is to say the indefinite integral cannot be solved symbolically (or is it analytically(?)). For example, those with the form of a radial distribution function using the Lennard-Jones potential:

$g(r) = \exp(-(r^{-12} - r^{-6}))$

What prevents me from using my standard Calc II knowledge to come up with a continuous expression for $\int{g(r)dr}$?

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    See [this](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/9199) as well.2012-04-19

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