The question is:
Prove that $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x+1}{1-x}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}+\tan^{-1}(x)$.
It's from A-level further mathematics.
The question is:
Prove that $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x+1}{1-x}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}+\tan^{-1}(x)$.
It's from A-level further mathematics.
The identity should read $\tan^{-1} \left(\dfrac{x+1}{1-x} \right) = \tan^{-1}(x) + \pi/4$
Let $\tan^{-1}(x) = \theta$ i.e. $x = \tan(\theta)$. Then we get that $\dfrac{x+1}{1-x} = \dfrac{\tan(\theta) + 1}{1-\tan(\theta)}$ Recall that $\tan(A+B) = \dfrac{\tan(A) + \tan(B)}{1 - \tan(A) \tan(B)}$.
Taking $B = \pi/4$, we get that $\tan(A+ \pi/4) = \dfrac{\tan(A) + 1}{1 - \tan(A)}$.
Hence, we get that $\dfrac{x+1}{1-x} = \dfrac{\tan(\theta) + 1}{1-\tan(\theta)} = \tan(\theta + \pi/4)$ Hence, $\tan^{-1} \left(\dfrac{x+1}{1-x} \right) = \theta + \pi/4 = \tan^{-1}(x) + \pi/4$
Proof of $\tan(A+B) = \dfrac{\tan(A) + \tan(B)}{1 - \tan(A) \tan(B)}$
$\tan(A+B) = \dfrac{\sin(A+B)}{\cos(A+B)} = \dfrac{\sin(A) \cos(B) + \cos(A) \sin(B)}{\cos(A) \cos(B) - \sin(A) \sin(B)}$ Assuming $\cos(A) \cos(B) \neq 0$, divide numerator and denominator by $\cos(A) \cos(B)$, to get that $\tan(A+B) = \dfrac{\sin(A) \cos(B) + \cos(A) \sin(B)}{\cos(A) \cos(B) - \sin(A) \sin(B)} = \dfrac{\tan(A) + \tan(B)}{1 - \tan(A) \tan(B)}$
Apply the function tan to both sides. Using the addition law for tan, we find that $\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+\tan^{-1}x\right)=\frac{1+x}{1-x}.$
But that is not what this answer is about.
Note that in the usual definition of $\tan^{-1} x$, we say that $\tan^{-1} x$ is the number (angle) in a specific interval whose tangent is $x$. For example, the Wikipedia definition specifies that $\tan^{-1} x$ is the number between $-\frac{\pi}{2}$ and $\frac{\pi}{2}$ whose tangent is $x$.
Under that definition, the supposed identity is not correct. Take for example $x=\sqrt{3}$. Then $\tan^{-1} x= \frac{\pi}{3}$. So the right-hand side is greater than $\frac{\pi}{2}$, while the left-hand side is negative.
Similar considerations hold if we for example specify that $\tan^{-1}x$ lies between $0$ and $\pi$. We can make the identity correct by restricting $x$ to the interval $[0,1)$.
Although Marvis's answer is more complete (+1) that you had expected, I am adding other. We know that If $f'(x) = g'(x)$, then $f(x) = g(x) + C$ for some constant $C$.. Here, if you put $f(x)=\tan^{-1}(\frac{x+1}{1-x})$ and $g(x)=\tan^{-1}(x)$; then $f'(x) = g'(x)$. So there is a constant $C$ that $f(x) = g(x) + C$. Now, put $x=0$ into both sides of the latter equality.
f'(x) = g'(x)">
f(x) = g(x) + \frac{\pi}{4}">
I'll resort to 2 very powerful formulas i did at school,often used, namely $\cos(2\tan^{-1}(x))=\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}$ and $\sin(2\tan^{-1}(x))=\frac{2x}{1+x^2}$. After multiplying the both sides of the identity by 2 and taking cos
of them, we simply get that: $\cos\left(2\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x+1}{1-x}\right)\right)=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+2\tan^{-1}(x)\right) \tag1$
The calculations to do here are very simple and immediately get that:
$\frac{-2x}{x^2+1}=\frac{-2x}{x^2+1}.$ Q.E.D.