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Let $f:X\rightarrow X$ be a smooth map of a smooth manifold with $f^2=\operatorname{id}$.

Is the subset $\{x\in X\mid f(x)=x\}$ a smooth submanifold?

I tried to find an argument with the implicit function theorem, but I don't have an answer.

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    @Steve It doesn't quite work that way: the z-axis, *qua* point of the projective plane, also is fixed under this reflection--that's the whole point of the example. To put it another way: an equivalence class (the z-axis) can be fixed without its elements being fixed, so it does not suffice to look only at the fixed points in the covering space. We're not talking about just a single point, either, in general: this example readily generalizes to higher-dimensional projective planes, Grassmannians, flag manifolds, etc., to give a rich set of counterexamples.2012-11-20

2 Answers 2

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If $f$ is involutive, so is its derivative in all points: $(T_xf)^2=Id$. And hence, there is a basis $(b_1,..,b_m,..)$ of $T_xX$ in which $T_xf$ becomes of the form $\pmatrix{I_m & 0\\0&-I_k}$ where $I_k$ is the $k\times k$ identity matrix, and $m+k=\dim X$.

So, if $f(x)=x$, then cutting out the correspondent of $\Bbb R^m\cong\langle b_1,..,b_m\rangle \subseteq T_xX\cong \Bbb R^n$ from the local chart $\phi$ will give you charts. Smoothness guarantees that the change of $b_i$'s along $x$ is smooth.

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    The requirement that connected components of a manifold (or of a submanifold for that matter) all have the same dimension is in my view a bug in the definition. Bad as the category of smooth manifolds is in many respects, it makes matters worse to artificially rule out even the most elementary categorical constructions (such as coproducts, closure under retracts, etc.) just on the basis of a (relatively unimportant) convention like this.2013-09-02
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I can't add a comment to Berci's answer, that is why I post this comment as an answer.

The argument in Berci's answer does not work as stated. (Since the question is a local matter, we can assume that $f:\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$, but I'm not sure that this helps.) The problem is that $f^2=id$ only implies that $(df)_{f(p)}\circ (df)_p = id_{T_pX}$. So you cannot conclude that $(df)_p$ is of the given form, since $(df)_p$ and $(df)_{f(p)}$ are different maps.

A different argument using Riemannian geometry is the following:

Choose a Riemannian metric $g$ on $X$, then $\tilde g= g + (f^* g)$ is a metric for which $f$ is an isometry (because $f^2=id$). The fixed point set of an isometry is easily seen to be a totally geodesic submanifold of $X$.

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    Yes. That is true at any fixed point. But not near any fixed point. This is what you would need for the argument above.2013-09-24