Do mathmatician ever prove that a theorem could not generalize into a much general theorem? Is there a historic mile-stone example refer to the above question?
Do mathmatician ever prove that a theorem could not generalize into a much general theorem? Is there a historic mile stone example?
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math-history
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0Suppose you have to theorems, $T_1$ and $T_2$. Although they seem to have nothing common, one can ask whether it is true if both $T_1$ and $T_2$ holds, and that is more general than $T_1$ or $T_2$. If you continue this and take all known theorems and ask whether all of them holds, I get an application of Russell's paradox. – 2012-10-23