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While reading Munkres' Topology section about integers and reals (Chapter 1, Section 4), he defines the set $\mathbb{Z}_+$ as:

Definition: A subset $A$ of the real numbers is said to be inductive if it contains the number 1, and if for every $x$ in $A$, the number $x+1$ is also in $A$. Let $\cal{A}$ be the collection of all inductive subsets of $\mathbb{R}$. Then the set $\mathbb{Z}_+$ of positive integers is defined by the equation $\bigcap _{A \in \cal{A}} A$

Isn't it possible to define $\mathbb{Z}_+$ as the set defined this way:

$1\in B \wedge (j \in B, n-1 = j) \Rightarrow n\in B$

Then $B = \mathbb{Z}_+$

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    Carl: Sure, I'll do that.2010-10-29

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Quoting Adrián Barquero:

This doesn't determine B as the set of positive integers. Basically you're just saying that B is an inductive set. In fact, if you look at the definition you gave from Munkres's book, the set of positive integers being defined as the intersection of all inductive sets is just saying that the positive integers constitute a minimal inductive set.