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How can I calculate, without calculator or similar device,

the values of $\pi^e$ and $e^\pi$

in order to compare them?

  • 1
    More generally: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/517555/fastest-way-to-check-if-xy-yx2016-01-30

12 Answers 12

175

Another proof uses the fact that $\displaystyle \pi \ne e$ and that $e^x > 1 + x$ for $x \ne 0$.

We have $e^{\pi/e -1} > \pi/e,$

and so

$e^{\pi/e} > \pi.$

Thus,

$e^{\pi} > \pi^e.$

Note: This proof is not specific to $\pi$.

  • 0
    @MrAP: $ x = \frac{\pi}{e} -1$. Now use $e^x \gt x + 1$.2017-05-30
48

This is an old chestnut. As a hint, it's easier to consider the more general problem: for which positive $x$ is e^x>x^e?

40

From Proofs without Words.

alt text

  • 0
    Which software did you use to plot this figure?2013-08-05
31

Alternatively, we can compare $e^{1/e}$ and $\pi^{1/\pi}$.

Let $f(x) = x^{1/x}$. Then $f'(x) = x^{1/x} (1 - \log(x))/x^2$. Since \log(x) > 1 for x > e, we see that $f'(x) < 0$ for $e < x < \pi$. We conclude that $\pi^{1/\pi} < e^{1/e}$, and so $\pi^e < e^\pi$.

The same calculation shows that $f(x)$ reaches its maximum at $e^{1/e}$, and so in general $x^e < e^x$.

  • 0
    It doesn't really need \log x > 1. All you need is that the only solution of $\log x = 1$ is $x = e$.2013-05-22
16

Let $f (x) =$ $x^\frac1x$

Find value of $x$ such that function gets maximum value

For this functions for $x=e$ function will get the maximum value

so $e^\frac1e$ is greater than $\pi^\frac1\pi$

so $e^\pi$ is greater than $\pi ^e$.

14

Elaborating Robin's answer take $f(x) = \log{x} - \frac{x}{e}$. We have $f'(x)= \frac{e-x}{xe}$ Thus f'(x)>0 for $0 < x < e$ and $f'(x) <0$ if x > e. Consequently, we have $f(x) < f(e)$ if $x \neq e$.

Exercise: Try to prove this using the same methods: $2^{\sqrt{2}} < e$.

9

Hint:

Prove that the function $f(x)=\frac{e^x}{x^e}, x\geq e$ is strictly increasing on the interval $x\in \left [ e,\pi \right ]$. What is $f(e)$ and $f(\pi)$?

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Another visual proof. Recently published in arXiventer image description here

3

Yet another line of thought would be this: $\begin{align} e^{\pi} > \pi^e &\iff \pi \ln(e)>e\ln(\pi)\\ &\iff \pi >e\ln(\pi) \\ &\iff \ln(\pi)>\ln(e)+\ln (\ln (\pi)) \\ &\iff \ln(\pi)>1+\ln (\ln (\pi)) \end{align}$ By concavity of $\ln$, $x-1>\ln(x)$ for all $x\neq 1$. With $x=\ln(\pi)$ we get the inequality wanted.

1

Denote $n = e^\pi$, $m = \pi^e$ and $s = \log \pi$. Then $\log n = \pi = e^s$ and $\log m = e \log \pi = es$. Then $\log \frac {n} {m} = \log n - \log m = e (e^{s - 1} - s).$ By Taylor expansion, we have $e^{s - 1} = 1 + (s - 1) + \cdots > s.$ Then $\log \frac {n} {m} = e (e^{s - 1} - s) > 0.$ Hence, $n > m$.

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$e^\pi>\pi^e$ because if we subtract $e$ from both exponents we get $e^{\pi-e}>1$ which is true because $e$ is is greater than $1$ so when it 8s raised to that power it is equal to $\frac{e^\pi}{e^e}$ and that has to be greater than 1 because the top is greater than the bottom.