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Let $A$ be a commutative ring with identity. If $A$ has finite number of prime ideals $p_1,...p_n$ and moreover $\prod_{i=1}^n p_i^{k_i} = 0$ for some $k_i$. Are the prime ideals necessarily maximal?

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No, but the counterexample is trivial. Take any integral domain with finitely many prime ideals which is not a field. For example, the localization $\mathbb{Z}_{(p)}$ of the integers at a prime p. The zero ideal is non-maximal and prime so, trivially, $\prod_{i=1}^np_i=0$. Maybe this isn't exactly what you were meaning to ask?

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    Of course, i just forgot it!2010-11-20