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This problem is taken from Vojtěch Jarník International Mathematical Competition 2010, Category I, Problem 1. — edit by KennyTM


On going through this post Does there exist a bijective $f:\mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ such that $\sum f(n)/n^2$ converges? i happened to get the following 2 problems into my mind:

Let $f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ be a bijection. Then does the series $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{nf(n)}$ converge?

Next, consider the series $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n+f(n)}$ where $f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ is a bijection. Clearly by taking $f(n)=n$ we see that the series is divergent. Does there exist a bijection such that the sum above is convergent?

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    @Robin: Hmm, on second thought, you're right. @Mariano: For me, sometimes it works, sometimes it doesn't.2010-09-08

3 Answers 3

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Hints. For the first series, prove that $\sum_{n=1}^N\frac1{nf(n)}\le\sum_{n=1}^N\frac1{n^2}.$

For the second, what would happen if $f$ were an involution, and in each pair $(n,f(n))$ one term was much bigger than the other?

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A couple of proofs in italian.

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    The problem comes from the 2010 Vojtěch Jarník International Mathematical Competition ( http://vjimc.osu.cz/ ).2010-09-08
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For question $2$, consider any $f(n)$ which is $2^n$ for $n$ which are not powers of $2.$ This lets us divide our sum into two parts, both of which converge.