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Given $U_T: L^2(X, \mu) \rightarrow L^2(X, \mu)$ , $f \mapsto f \circ T$ where $T : X \rightarrow X$ is measurable such that $\mu ( T^{-1}(A) ) = \mu(A) \forall A \in \Sigma$ I would like to show that $f = g$ $\mu$-almost-everywhere implies $U_T(f) = U_T(g)$ $\mu$-almost-everywhere.

My proof:

\begin{align*} \| f\circ T - g \circ T \|_{L^2} &= \left(\int_X | f\circ T - g \circ T|^2 d \mu \right)^\frac{1}{2} \\&= \left(\int_{T(X)} | f- g |^2 d \mu \right)^\frac{1}{2} \\&= \left(\int_X | f- g |^2 d \mu \right)^\frac{1}{2} \\&= \| f-g\|_{L^2} \end{align*}

where the third equality comes from a change of variables.

Did I get this right? It feels a bit wobbly. Thanks for your help!

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    @AndréCaldas: Thanks!2011-10-18

1 Answers 1

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First of all, if a function $f: X\to \mathbb{R}$ is measurable so is $f \circ T: X \to \mathbb{R}$.

This is because by hypothesis $f^{-1}(B) \in \Sigma$ and $(f\circ T)^{-1}(B) = T^{-1}(f^{-1}(B))\in \Sigma$ for all Borel sets in $\mathbb{R}$ since $T:(X,\Sigma) \to (X,\Sigma)$ is measurable.

Now if $f: X\to \mathbb{R}$ is a function that is zero almost everywhere, there is a null set $N \in \Sigma$ such that $f(x) = 0$ for all $x \notin N$. But this means that $f(Tx) = 0$ for all $x \notin T^{-1}(N)$ and $\mu(T^{-1}(N)) = 0$ because of the assumption that $T$ preserves $\mu$. Therefore $f \circ T = 0$ almost everywhere.

Now if $f = g$ almost everywhere then $f-g = 0$ a.e., hence $(f-g)\circ T = f\circ T - g \circ T = 0$ a.e., hence $f \circ T = g\circ T$ almost everywhere.

That's what you wanted to show.


But now you want to go a step further and say that for $f \in L^2$ we have $\|f \circ T\|_2 = \|f\|_2$.

Your proof is flawed in that the very first expression already assumes that $f \circ T - g \circ T \in L^2$, and you don't know that yet!

What you do know after the first part of this answer is that $f = g$ a.e. implies that $f \circ T = g \circ T$ a.e. hence $|f \circ T|^2 = |g \circ T|^2$ a.e., and thus $f \circ T$ is square integrable if and only if $g \circ T$ is square integrable.

Now you want to prove that $\|f \circ T\|_2 = \|f\|_2$ for all $f \in L^2$, so here's an outline:

  1. If $f$ is simple, this is clear (why exactly?)
  2. If $f \geq 0$ then approximate $f$ monotonically with a sequence of simple functions $s_n$ and observe that $s_n \circ T \to f \circ T$ monotonically and apply the monotone convergence theorem and point 1.
  3. Split $f$ into real and imaginary parts and split real and imaginary parts into positive and negative parts and apply 2.
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    @Matt: well, that's of course the point, essentially :) If $s = \sum a_n [A_n]$ then $s \circ T = \sum a_n [T^{-1}A_n]$ and as $ \int s\,d \mu = \sum a_n \mu(A_n) = \sum a_n \mu(T^{-1}A_n) = \int s \circ T \,d\mu,$ the functions $s$ and $s \circ T$ have the same integrals. Tor the $L^1$ norms just replace $s$ by $|s|$ and $a_n$ by $|a_n|$ and for the $L^2$ norms it's easiest to assume the $A_n$ pairwise disjoint. You should be able to work that out in detail yourself.2011-10-19