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In considering: A polynomial over a field of degree n has at most n roots.

-- How does this make use of the stipulation "over a field" - especially with an eye toward inveritbility ? Is it to insure one can obtain a monic polynomial? Or perhaps because the Euclidean algorithm might apply in the proof?

Not unrelated, in looking for an intuitive understanding:

-- In $\mathbb{Z}/8\mathbb{Z}$[$x$], which is not a field, $x^2$-1 has degree 2, and has 4 roots {1,3,5,7}. While, e.g., the same polynomial has two roots in $\mathbb{Z}/7\mathbb{Z}$[$x$], over a field.

Here my question is, how does not being or being over a field distinguish these two results. Especially from the perspective that every element of a field has a multiplicative inverse.

And as a follow-up, it seems a bit "ironic" (probably not a word applicable to math) that in the latter case all the elements are prime to 7 (invertible, in a field) yet there are only two roots (= degree of the polynomial). Yet in the first case, the four roots are themselves elements that are prime to 8 (invertible).

So here I would appreciate an intuitive understanding of how invertibility applies in these two cases. How does it makes things work in the case of mod 7 to satisfy the above theorem regarding number of roots and the degree of the polynomial. And how in the case of mod 8, the theorem is not applicable, and further, that the roots are in fact the very elements that are invertible mod 8.

As usual, I am a self-studier, so please forgive me if these questions are naive or poorly phrased. Thanks for your patience and kind reply.

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    @JyrkiLahtonenThanks, that was exactly what I was wondering about. I appreciate your tying those two aspects of my question together. (Still working on the other answers.)2011-12-22

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The real issue (for commutative rings) is zero divisors.

Suppose $R$ is an integral domain (commutative ring with $1 \not= 0$ and no zero divisors). Then $R$ can be embedded in its field of fractions $R \subseteq \mathbb{F}$. So if $f(x) \in R[x]$, then $f(x) \in \mathbb{F}[x]$. Thus if $f$ has degree $n$, it has at most $n$ roots.

The real reason the "at most $n$ roots" part holds is because integral domains obey cancellation laws. So if you have a root $r$ so that $f(x)=(x-r)g(x)$ then you can cancel off $(x-r)$ and are left with $g(x)$ which is a polynomial of lower degree (then continue using induction).

If $R$ is not an integral domain, then cancellation laws do not hold and so you can have more than $n$ roots for a polynomial of degree $n$.

Now if $R$ isn't even commutative (even if $R$ has no zero divisors) it gets worse. Polynomials over the quaternions (a "non-commutative" field -- i.e. a skew field or division ring) can have more roots than their degrees.

So in general, if $R$ is non-commutative or if $R$ is commutative but with zero divisors, then polynomials with coefficients in $R$ do not necessarily have unique factorizations and so polynomials of degree $n$ can have more than $n$ roots.

Edit Quaternion example: Let $\mathbb{H} = \{ a+bi+cj+dk \;|\; a,b,c,d\in \mathbb{R} \}$ be the (real) quaternions. Then the polynomial $x^2+1 \in \mathbb{H}[x]$ has more than $2$ roots. In fact, $\pm i, \pm j, \pm k$ are all roots of $x^2+1$ (since $i^2=j^2=k^2=-1$).

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    @BillCook Thanks2011-12-22
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Here is one insightful way to view it. Consider the following proof for an integral domain $\rm\,R.$

$\rm\ \ a_i\ne a_j\ \Rightarrow\ \{x-a_i\}\ $ are nonassocate primes in $\rm\:R[x],\:$ by $\rm\: R[x]/(x\!-\!a) \cong R\:$ is a domain.

Therefore $\rm\ \ x\!-\!a_1\ |\ f(x),\ \ldots\:,\: x\!-\!a_n\ |\ f(x)\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ (x\!-\!a_1)\cdots (x\!-\!a_n)\ |\ f(x) $

since LCM = product for nonassociate primes. But this is contra degree if $\rm\ n > deg\ f.$

When $\rm\:R\:$ is not a domain this argument fails since then $\rm\: x\! -\! c\:$ is no longer prime, e.g. $\rm\ (x\!-\!1)\, (x\!+\!1)\, =\, (x\!-\!3)\, (x\!+\!3)\ $ over $\rm\:\mathbb Z/8,\:$ so none of the factors are prime.

Remark $\ $ In fact a ring $\rm\: D\:$ is a domain $\iff$ every nonzero polynomial $\rm\ f(x)\in D[x]\ $ has at most $\rm\ deg\ f\ $ roots in $\rm\:D.\:$ For the simple proof see my post here, where I illustrate it constructively in $\rm\: \mathbb Z/m\: $ by proving

$\quad$ if $\rm\:f(x)\in\mathbb Z/m\:$ has more roots than its degree,$\:$ we can quickly factor of $\rm\:m\:$ by a $\rm\:gcd\:$

The quadratic case of this result is at the heart of many integer factorization algorithms, which try to factor $\rm\:m\:$ by searching for a nontrivial square root in $\rm\: \mathbb Z/m,\:$ e.g. a square root of $1$ not $\,\pm 1$.

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It's not clear to me why you think it is ironic.

So let's look at the case you've given: $x^2-1 = (x-1)(x+1)$.

Note that in a field, if $x^2-1=0$ and $x+1\neq 0$, you can multiply both sides by $\mathbb (x+1)^{-1}$ and see that $x-1 = 0$.

What you really need to be able to say is that the ring has no zero divisors.

In finite rings, no zero divisors is the same as inverses always existing - no zero divisors means that for any $a\neq 0$, $x\to ax$ is a $1-1$ map, and hence, if your ring is finite, it is necessarily onto, so $ax=1$ for some $x$.

The other feature of a field you need is commutativity - for example, in quaternions, there are more than two roots to $x^2+1$.

So, in a commutative ring without zero divisors, any polynomial of degree $n$ can have at most $n$ roots.

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    No, in any ring you can divide by monics, it's just that once you have a factorization of the form: $p(x)=(x-a_1)...(x-a_n)$, if there are zero divisors in your field, it is possible for $p(x)=0$ with $x\notin\{a_1,...,a_n\}$2011-12-22