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If two sequences $\{a_k\}$ and $\{b_k\}$ are such that

$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}(a_k-b_k)=0$

$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}(a_k^2-b_k^2)=0$

does it mean that the two sequences are asymptotically equally distributed? i.e., you can't distinguish one sequence from the other?

EDIT

Assume that two sequences are such that

$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}(a_k^q-b_k^q)=0;\ \forall\ q\in\mathbb{N}$

I'm asking this because a sentence in a paper claims that for two asymptotically equally distributed sequences, the above holds. I'm wondering if the converse is true, i.e., if the above hold for any sequence, are they asymptotically equally distributed?

EDIT 2

Definition: Asymptotically equally distributed sets

Two sets $\{a_k\}$ and $\{b_k\}$ are said to be asymptotically equally distributed if

$-\infty<\alpha_1\leq \{a_k,b_k\}\leq\alpha_2<\infty$

and

$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\left[f(a_k)-f(b_k)\right]=0$

where $f(x)$ is any function continuous on $[\alpha_1,\alpha_2]$. This is called Weyl's theorem or Weyl's definition, but I don't remember the original paper this was discussed.

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    @user7815: This paper [http://ramanujan.math.trinity.edu/wtrench/research/papers/RP-112.pdf](http://ramanujan.math.trinity.edu/wtrench/research/papers/RP-112.pdf) by William F. Trench appears relevant.2011-03-12

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The answer to the question as it stands is no. Let $b_n = 0$ identically and let $a_n$ be a sparse enough sequence such that all of its asymptotic moments are zero but such that it is unbounded (e.g. let $a_n = k$ if $n = 2^k$ and $0$ otherwise). Then the first condition is not satisfied.

If you add the boundedness condition, then the answer is yes. Like yoyo says in the comments, by Stone-Weierstrass we can uniformly approximate any continuous function $f$ on an interval by polynomials, and it is not hard to see that the desired expression in $f$ respects uniform limits for bounded sequences.