Does there exist a continuous bijection from $(0,1)$ to $[0,1]$? Of course the map should not be a proper map.
Continuous bijection from $(0,1)$ to $[0,1]$
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0Alex, if you have any question on t.b.'s answer (or any of the ones you got) you may use the comment below the answer - I am sure he/she/they would be happy to assist! – 2011-12-13
6 Answers
No. If $f:(0,1) \to [0,1]$ were continuous and bijective, there would be a unique point $x \in (0,1)$ such that $f(x) = 1$. However, since $f$ is continuous, the intervals $[x - \varepsilon, x]$ and $[x, x + \varepsilon]$ would be mapped to intervals $[a,1]$ and $[b,1]$, say. By bijectivity we'd have $a, b \lt 1$. Thus every value strictly between $\max{\{a,b\}}$ and $1$ would be assumed at least twice, contradicting bijectivity.
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3Interesting how this proof relies on $(0, 1)$ being open so that the intervals $[x- \epsilon, x] $ and $[x, x + \epsilon]$ both exist, and (0, 1] being "closed at 1" so that $a, b \lt 1$. – 2016-03-27
Let $f:(0,1) \rightarrow [0,1]$ be continuous and surjective. (Actually, we just need to suppose that $0$ and $1$ are in the image of $f$.) Let $a,b \in (0,1)$ such that $f(a)=0$ and $f(b)=1$. Let $I=[a,b]$ if $a or $I=[b,a]$ if $b. Then, by the intermediate value theorem, $f(I)$ is an interval that contains $0$ and $1$ and so $f(I)$ contains $[0,1]$, which implies $f(I)=[0,1]$. But then $f$ cannot be injective because $(0,1)\setminus I$ is nonempty.
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0@LiamCooney, perhaps you could ask a separate question. – 2016-10-29
Suppose that $f:(0,1) \rightarrow [0,1]$ is 1-1 and continuous. By the intermediate value theorem, the image of any interval under $f$ is an interval. Since $f$ is 1-1, it is either (strictly) monotone increasing or decreasing. Hence, $f(0,1)$ is an interval. Without loss of generality, assume $f$ is increasing; were it not this analysis would apply to $1 - f$.
Suppose now that $f$ is onto; then we must have some $t\in(0,1)$ with $f(t) = 1$. Because $f$ is strictly monotone increasing, we would have to have $f(s) > 1$, for $t \le s < 1$. This violates the premise that $f(0,1) \subseteq [0,1]$. Hence, $f$ cannot be onto.
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6Yes, continuous 1-1 function defined on an interval is monotone. Interesting application of intermediate value theorem several times. – 2011-05-31
Since Theo gave an answer I am going to be nitpicking and add one remark. When speaking about continuity (especially when tagging under [topology]) it is best to mention the topology you are working with. In this case, you mean in the standard topology.
Otherwise, consider the discrete topology, i.e. every set is open:
Let $f\colon [0,1]\to (0,1)$ be any bijection, it is continuous since all sets are open, the preimage of an open set is an open set, thus $f$ is continuous.
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2@AsafKaragila: it would be complete to give an example of one such bijection (e.g. $0\mapsto\frac12$, $\frac1n\mapsto\frac1{n+2}$ for $n=1,2,3,\dots$, and $x\mapsto x$, otherwise). – 2012-11-04
There does not exist a continuous bijection from (0,1) to [0,1]. Indeed, let $f$ be such a function. Let consider a sequence $x_n=1-1/n$. Then from the sequence $(f(x_n))$ we can choose a subsequence $(f(x_{n_k}))$ which is convergent. Let denote this limit by $y$. Obviously, $y \in [0,1]$. Since $f^{-1}$ also is continuous, we get $f^{-1}(y)=\lim_{k \to +\infty}f^{-1}(f(x_{n_k}))=\lim_{k \to \infty}x_{n_k}=1$. But $1 \notin (0,1)$.
Remark(Why $f^{-1}$ must be continuous under our assumption?) By our assumption $f:(0,1)\to [0,1]$ is continuous bijection. Then $f:(0,1)\to [0,1]$ must be injective and continuous which following invariance of domain (see, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invariance_of_domain is homeomorphism. Hence $f^{-1}: [0,1]\to (0,1)$ is continuous.
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0That argument should be made in the answer (although invariance of domain is serious overkill for the one-dimensional setting). – 2014-08-15