Fermat's Little Theorem follows from the following two observations:
$\varphi(p) = p-1$ when $p$ is a prime. Because every number $d$, $1\leq d\lt p$, is relatively prime to $p$. (In fact, this is an alternative definition for prime number in the integers).
A corollary to Lagrange's Theorem: If $G$ is a finite group with $k$ elements in it, and $a\in G$, then $a^k=1$.
Now let $n$ be any integer; if $\gcd(n,p)=p$, then $n\equiv 0\pmod{p}$, so $n^p\equiv 0^p \equiv 0\equiv n\pmod{p}$. If $\gcd(n,p)=1$, then look at the group of units modulo $p$. It contains the class of $n$, and has order $\varphi(p)=p-1$. So $n^{p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod{p}$ by Lagrange's Theorem. Multiplying through by $n$ we get $n^p\equiv n\pmod{p}$.
Finally, it is not true that the number of integers relatively prime to $n$ is $n^p-n^{p-1}$, in any reasonable or sensible understanding of the terms and formulas. For one thing, $n$ is fixed, but $p$ is an arbitrary prime.
Perhaps you are asking why the number of positive integers relatively prime to $p^n$ and smaller than $p^n$ is $p^n-p^{n-1} = p^{n-1}(p-1)$ (i.e., $\varphi(p^n)=p^n-p^{n-1}$?
An integer is relatively prime to $p^n$ if and only if it is not divisible by $p$. Of the $p^n$ nonnegative integers smaller than $p^n$, which ones are multiples of $p$? We have $0$, $p$, $2p$, $3p,\ldots,(p-1)p$, $p^2, (p+1)p,\ldots,(p^{n-1}-1)p$, and that's it. There are exactly $p^{n-1}$ of them. So out of all $p^n$ integers, we need to take out $p^{n-1}$ of them, leaving us with exactly $p^n-p^{n-1}$ that are relatively prime to $p$. So $\varphi(p^n)=p^{n}-p^{n-1}=p^{n-1}(p-1)$.