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I want to prove that if $n\neq m$ then $\mathbb{R}^n$ is not homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^m$.

This deceptively simple topology question came up on an algebraic topology worksheet on which the rest of the questions centre around the Mayer-Vietoris sequence and degrees of maps. I have to admit I have little idea about how to proceed, except maybe to use homotopy types (and I'm not even sure how to start there). A hint or two would be very handy...

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    http://mathoverflow.net/questions/34232/injective-maps-mathbbrn-to-mathbbrm2011-06-06

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Hint: If $\varphi: \mathbb{R}^m\to \mathbb{R}^n$ is a homeomorphism, then $\mathbb{R}^m\setminus x$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n\setminus \varphi(x)$. Compute the homology.

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    @Fahad Sperinck That is completely set theoretic, using just that $\varphi$ is a bijection. If $\varphi^{-1}(\varphi(x))$ had more than one point, the map wouldn't work. However, the fact that restricted map is still a homeomorphism comes from the definition of the subspace topology. More generally, if $U\subset X$ and $\varphi:X\to Y$ is a homeomorphism, it restricts to a homeomorphism $U\to \varphi(U)$.2011-06-05
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Hint: Try removing a point and computing the homology.

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    Thanks! This was there first and would have done the trick, but I read both at the same time.2011-06-05
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Another possibility is to compare the one-point compactifications of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and $\mathbb{R}^m$, ie. $\mathbb{S}^n$ and $\mathbb{S}^m$ respectively, for example by computing the homology.