The problem:
Let $X = [0,1]$ and $\mathcal{B}$ be the Borel subsets of $X$. Let $\mu:\mathcal{B}\to[0,1]$ be a probability measure on $X$. Suppose that $\mu$ is regular, i.e., for all $B\in\mathcal{B}$ we have $\mu(B) = \inf\{\mu(O) | B\subset O, O\ \operatorname{is\ open}\}$ and $\mu(B) = \sup\{\mu(K) | K\subset B, K\ \operatorname{is\ compact}\}.$
Let $K = \cap_\alpha K_\alpha$ where $\{K_\alpha\}_\alpha$ is the collection of all compact subsets of $X$ with $\mu(K_\alpha) = 1$. Show that for every open set $O\subset X$ with $K\subset O$ there is $\alpha$ such that $K\subset K_\alpha\subset O$.
Now we know that each $K_\alpha$ satisfies $K\subset K_\alpha$, by definition, so all we need to show is that for any open set $O\subset X$ with $K\subset O$, there exists some $\alpha$ such that $K_\alpha \subset O$.
It is fairly easy to show that there is some compact set $J$ satisfying $ K\subset J\subset O,$ But what I'm not seeing is how we may conclude $\mu(J) = 1$.
I should add, part (ii) of this problem asks us to show $\mu(K) = 1$, which is fairly easy from the part above, but it means for this part I cannot use it combined with monotonicity of the measure to show $\mu(J) = 1$, which is about the only idea I've come up with.
Anyone have a hint at why $J$ must have measure 1, simply because it contains $K$, before knowing $K$ has measure 1?
Thanks!