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I'm reading this book as an introduction to category and I have a problem with the definition of the dual category given on page 25. The right way to get the dual category can be described by turning around arrows and permuting the order of their composition. However I don't know how this works out with the statement

$\text{hom}_{\bf{A^{OP}}}(A,B)=\text{hom}_{\bf{A}}(B,A).$

The set of morphisms $\text{hom}_{\bf{A}}(B,A)$ is already defined and the category $\bf{A}^{OP}$ is sopposed to contain morphisms, which are turned around, i.e. morphisms with different domain and codomain. How can these new ones equal the one from the first category? I remember reading this before in a book, and although the english wikipedia doesn't use this expression, the russian (?) one seems to use this definition as well.

So say I have a category $\bf{C}$ with only two objects $a,b$, as well as a single morphism $f$ from $a$ to $b$. From the description I think the dual category $\bf{C}^{OP}$ is the one with $a,b$ and an arrow from $b$ to $a$. How does the formula work if this new morphism isn't contained in $\bf{C}$, so that $\text{hom}_{\bf{C}}(b,a)$ is essentially empty?

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    I would actually understand it if they wouldn't use $=$ and say they are naturally identified. After all, it's pretty obvious that you then have an arrow $\rightarrow$ for every $\leftarrow$. But I was or am confused that this kind of "sloppy" notation is used. ineffs answer is a way to implicitly "explain" it, namely to say that the identification goes by the name of the function which just stands for an element of a set, and the direction is "meta"-information carried by the category itself. As I pointed out in the comment to his answer, this still seems like a strage way to do it to me.2011-12-25

2 Answers 2

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The point is that source and target of morphisms aren't an intrinsic property of the morphisms themselves, but are more like a property of the category.

In general you can see the same element of a set as a morphism for two different categories and this morphism can have different source and target in these categories. When you say that $\hom_{\mathbf A^\text{op}}(A,B)=\hom_\mathbf{A}(B,A)$, you're building up a new category in which the morphisms are the same elements/morphisms of $\mathbf C$ but in this new category you see these morphisms with reversed direction.

If you prefer you can think of the opposite category of category $\mathbf C$ as a new category such that for each morphism $f \colon A \to B$ in $\mathbf C$ there exists a unique $f^\text{op} \colon B \to A$ in $\mathbf C$ and such that the composition is such that $g^\text{op} \circ f^\text{op}=(f \circ g)^\text{op}$, where the composition on the left is the one in the opposite category, while the one on the right is that of the category $\mathbf C$. In this way you have defined the opposite category $\mathbf C^\text{op}$ up to isomorphism, thus you can think of the definition that you gave as a model, i.e. a concrete representation, of the opposite category.

Hope this can help.

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    @Agustí Roig: Yeah, so you have to specify domain and codomain together with the function $f$. I guess this is what you mean by "The domain and codomain of a morphism are part of the morphism." This is just a bit confusing given the first sentence in the post we are responding to is "The point is that source and target of morphisms aren't an intrinsic property of the morphisms themselves". I'm pretty sure we both know what to do effectively, but one really has to watch ones wording here.2011-12-27
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I think MacLane's "Categories for the working mathematician" says it better than your book:

"To each category $\cal{C}$ we also associate the opposite category $\cal{C}^{op}$. The objects of $\cal{C}^{op}$ are the objects of $\cal{C}$, the arrows of $\cal{C}^{op}$ are arrows $f^{op}$ in one-one correspondence $f \mapsto f^{op}$ with the arrows $f$ of $\cal{C}$. For each arrow $f: a \longrightarrow b$ of $\cal{C}$, the domain and codomain of the corresponding arrow $f^{op}$ are as in $f^{op}: b \longrightarrow a$ (the direction reversed). The composite $f^{op}g^{op} = (gf)^{op}$ is defined in $\cal{C}^{op}$ exactly when the composite $gf$ is defined in $\cal{C}$.