Let $G\subset \mathbb{C}$ be a domain and let $f$ be a logarithmic function on $G$. Then it will be now shown that:
i) $ \displaystyle{ w(z)= \exp(\frac{1}{2}f(z))}$ is a holomorphic square root on $G$, e.g. $(w(z))^{2} = z \ \forall z \in G.$
ii) Every continuous function $w:G\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ with $(w(z))^{2}=z \ \forall z$ is of the form $w(z)=\pm \exp(\frac{1}{2}f(z))$.
iii) If $0\in G$ then there would be no holomorphic square root on G.
VVV's work
i) The holomorphy of $w(z)$ follows directly from the theorem for composition of holomorphic functions. Every logarithmic function is of the form $f(z) \log(|z|) + i\phi + i2\pi\mathbb{Z} $
so: $w(z) = \exp(\frac{1}{2}(\log(|z|)+i\phi)) = |z|^{1/2}e^{i\frac{\phi}{2}} \Rightarrow (w(z))^{2} = |z|e^{i\phi} = z$
ii) in i) it is shown that $w(z)=\exp(\frac{1}{2}f(z))$ is a solution of $(w(z))^{2}=z \ \forall z\in G$. Since $(-w(z))^{2} = (-1)^{2}(w(z))^{2} = (w(z))^{2}$ also $-w(z)$ must fulfill this criteria. How does one show that these are all solutions?
iii) Assume $0\in G$, then look at $w(0) = \exp(\frac{1}{2}f(0))$ since $\log(0)$ isn't defined so neither can the holomorphic square root exist.
Are these proofs correct ? Does anybody see how to show that in $ii)$ $w(z)$ and $-w(z)$ are the only solutions? Please do tell me