5
$\begingroup$

It is well-known that any set $E \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ with positive outer measure contains a nonmeasurable subset $V$. I know that $0 < m^*(V) \le m^*(E)$. Nevertheless, my question is the following: given $r \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $r>0$, is there a nonmeasurable subset of $\mathbb{R}$ whose outer measure is exactly $r$?

Thank you in advance.

  • 1
    I'll put my and Jonas's answer as a Community Wiki answer so you can mark it as "accepted" and the question can be marked as answered, in case it doesn't get the votes to be closed.2011-02-14

1 Answers 1

4

On can take a Vitali nonmeasurable subset of $[0,1]$, which has positive and finite outer measure, and just scale it appropriately.

As Jonas points out, this is closely related to this previous question, but much easier.