Prove, or give a counter example: Let $\mu$ be a finite positive borel measure on $\mathbb{R}$. Then $\int (x-y)^{-2} d \mu (y) = \infty $ almost everywhere on $\mu$ (for the selection of x's).
This is a question I had in an exam, and the answer is supposed to be presented in less than 30 words, so there must be something quite simple I'm missing.