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Does the following equality generally hold?

$ \lim_{x\to\infty, y\to\infty} f(x, y) = \lim_{z\to\infty} f(z, z) $

If not, what are the necessary conditions for the above equation to hold?

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    Thanks guys. I got the point. But actually my question is a bit different. I changed the question accordingly. In fact, I want to find the value of $f(.)$ for very large $x$ and $y$.2011-05-30

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Consider $f(x,y)=e^{-(x-y)^2}$. Then each of the iterated limits is $0$ at infty, and obviously $f(z,z)=1$ for all $z$.

To make the equality hold, you need to change $\lim_{x \to \infty}\lim_{y \to \infty} $ to $\lim_{x,y \to \infty}$. Then, if $f$ has a limit at $\infty$ the equality $\lim_{(x,y) \to \infty}f(x,y)=\lim_{z \to \infty}f(z,z)$ holds.

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    Ok, here is more explanation: I have$a$concave function $g(x, y; a, b)$ and I want to show that it's maximum happens at the point $$ for large $a$ and $b$'s. $x$ and $y$ are function variables while $a$ and $b$ are constants. Is it enough to show $\frac{\partial g}{\partial x} = 0$ and $\frac{\partial g}{\partial y} = 0$ for large $a$ and $b$? This is actually what I want to show.2011-05-30