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Let $(X, M, \mu\ )$ be a measure space. Let $f$ be a positive measurable function with $\int_X f d \mu\ < \infty\ .$ Then for every $\epsilon\ > 0$, there is a set $E \in M$ such that $\mu(E)<\infty$ and \begin{equation} \int_X f d \mu\ \leq \int_E f d \mu\ + \epsilon \end{equation}

This problem appears on Bartle's Elements of Integration and Lebesgue Measure. I couldn't prove it for the life of me. And obviously, $E$ has to be a proper subset of $X$, otherwise, this is just trivial. Any idea?

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    You're welcome. The part where you say $E$ should be proper is still incorrect. In general, it will not be; the example in my first comment gives such a case. (And anytime \mu(X)<\infty, you can just take $E=X$, but this special case need not be explicitly addressed.)2011-05-20

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Since the result is trivial if $\int_X {fd\mu } = 0$ or $\mu(X) < \infty$, assume that $\int_X {fd\mu } > 0$ and $\mu(X) = \infty$.

Given $\varepsilon > 0$, it follows from the definition $ \int_X {fd\mu } = \sup \bigg\{ \int_X {sd\mu } :0 \le s \le f,s \; {\rm simple}\bigg \} $ that there exists a simple function $0 \leq s \leq f$ such that $ \int_X {fd\mu } - \varepsilon \le \int_X {sd\mu }. $ We can suppose that, for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$, $s$ takes positive values $\alpha_i$, $i=1,\ldots,n$, on some measurable subsets $E_i$ of $X$ with (necessarily) $\mu(E_i) < \infty$ (since $\int_X {sd\mu } < \infty $), and $s$ is zero on the complement of $E_1 \cup \cdots \cup E_n $. Noting that $s \leq f$, we then have $ \int_X {sd\mu } = \int_{E_1 \cup \cdots \cup E_n } {sd\mu } \le \int_{E_1 \cup \cdots \cup E_n } {fd\mu } , $ from which the desired result follows with $E = E_1 \cup \cdots \cup E_n$.

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Each set $\displaystyle{A_n=\left\{x:|f(x)|>\frac{1}{n}\right\}}$ has finite measure. Each function $f\cdot\chi_{A_n}$ is dominated by $f$, and $f\cdot\chi_{A_n}\to f$ pointwise ($\chi_{A_n}$ denotes the characteristic function of $A_n$). By Lebesgue's dominated convergence theorem, $\int_{A_n}fd\mu\to \int_X fd\mu$ as $n\to\infty$. Therefore $E$ can be taken to be $A_n$ for sufficiently large $n$.

Here you could also just use monotone convergence, because $(f\cdot \chi_{A_n})$ increases to $f$.

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    Tha$n$ks, I'll turn $m$y comments into an answer.2011-05-20