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Okay. So I know that a set $E$ is called measurable if for any set $A$, we have $ m^\ast(A)=m^\ast(A\cap E)+m^\ast(A\cap E^c).$ Recently, I came across a Lemma which says that

a set $A\subset E$ is called measurable if and only if $m^\ast(A) + m^\ast(E\setminus A)=b-a$ where $a$ and $b$ are the end points of the interval $E$.

I would like to know how to proof the above lemma. I have been trying for some time now with no results.
Thanks.

Added: Following Sid's answer, I make some additions.

since $A\subset E$, $A\cap E=A$. so $m^\ast(A\cap E)=m^\ast(A)$. Also, $E\backslash A=E\cap A^c$. Thus $m^\ast(A) + m^\ast(E\setminus A)=b-a=m^\ast(E)$ implies that $m^\ast(A\cap E) + m^\ast(E\cap A^c)=m^\ast(E).$ Hence $A$ is measurable.

Conversely, suppose $A$ is measurable, then we have $m^\ast(A\cap E) + m^\ast(E\cap A^c)=m^\ast(E).$
since $A\subset E$, $A\cap E=A$ and $E\backslash A=E\cap A^c$, the result follows.

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    I had$a$typo earlier on, but I already fixed it.2011-11-27

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In the lemma, we have $E\backslash A=E\cap A^c$, and $m^*(E)=b-a$. Does this help?

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    I've some additions. Could please see if it's okay? Thanks.2011-11-27