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Let us consider a contraction mapping $f$ acting on metric space $(X,~\rho)$ ($f:X\to X$ and for any $x,y\in X:\rho(f(x),f(y))\leq k~\rho(x,y),~ 0 < k < 1$). If $X$ is complete, then there exists an unique fixed point. But is there an incomplete space for which this property holds as well? I think $X$ should be something like graph of $\text{sin}~{1\over x}$, but I don't know how to prove it.

Thank you and sorry for my english.

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    See also [Converse to Banach's fixed point theorem?](http://mathoverflow.net/q/26119) at MathOverflow.2016-12-10

2 Answers 2

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Section 4 of this paper of Suzuki and Takahashi gives an example of a metric space -- in fact, a subspace of the Euclidean plane (so it seems you were on the right track!) -- which is incomplete but for which every contraction mapping has a fixed point.

They go on to repair matters by defining a "weakly contractive mapping" and showing that a metric space is complete iff every weakly contractive mapping has a fixed point.

Note: I was not aware of this paper until I read this question. I then googled -- contraction mapping, characterization of completeness -- and the paper showed up right away. (I look forward to reading it more carefully when I get the chance...)

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    The link to that article is now broken. Working link: [Suzuki, T., Takahashi, W.: Fixed point Theorems and characterizations of metric completeness](https://www.tmna.ncu.pl/static/files/v08n2-11.pdf). Thanks!2015-10-27
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There is a sense in which every such fixed point comes from a complete metric space:

Theorem: Let $X$ be an arbitrary set. Let $f:X\to X$ be a function with fixed point $x$ such that for all positive natural numbers $n$ and for all $y\neq x$, we have $f^n(y)\neq y$. Then there exists a complete metric $d$ on $X$ such that $f$ is a strict contraction.

The theorem is originally due to C. Bessaga and is not that easy to prove. A relatively short proof can be found here.

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    (I didn't get pinged...) I agree, that's a really good book.2015-04-18