It is well-known that any set $E \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ with positive outer measure contains a nonmeasurable subset $V$. I know that $0 < m^*(V) \le m^*(E)$. Nevertheless, my question is the following: given $r \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $r>0$, is there a nonmeasurable subset of $\mathbb{R}$ whose outer measure is exactly $r$?
Thank you in advance.