From planetmath and wolfram, the Fourier-Stieltjes transform of a function $\alpha$ is defined as $\displaystyle \int_{\mathbb{R}} e^{itx} d(\alpha(t)).$ The kernel $\displaystyle e^{itx}$ is unlike the one $\displaystyle e^{-itx}$ used in Fourier transformation.
From Wikipedia, the Laplace-Stieltjes transform of a function $g$ is given as $ \displaystyle \int_{\mathbb{R}} e^{-sx}\,dg(x).$ The kernel ${e}^{-sx}$ is same as the one used in Laplace transformation.
I was wondering why the minus sign in the exponent of kernels for Fourier-Stieltjes transform and Fourier transform are not consistent, while consistent for Laplace-Stieltjes transform and Laplace transform?
Are there mistakes in the quoted sources, or other popular variant definitions?