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Please can someone kindly aid me with correct solution. The question ask:

If EUR 100 were used to purchase British Pounds in Year 1, what would be their approximate value if they were kept for a year (assume no interest earned) and then exchanged for HKD?

   Value of 1 Euro (Euro)                                         Y1      Y2    British Pound  (GBP) =               1.52    1.62    Hong Kong dollar (HKD) =             12.3    11.2     Choices     A] HKD 2,626     B] HKD 1,038        C] HKD 937          D] HKD 1,667     E] HKD 1,847 

1st attempt

    1.52 (Y1 GBP) / 12.3 ( Y1 HKD) = 0.123577235     0.123577235 * 100 (Euros) = 12.35772358     12.35772358 / 1.62 (Y2 GBP) = 7.62822443     7.62822443 * 11.2 (Y2 HKD) = 85.43611362 

2nd attempt

    100 (Euros) * 1.52 (Y1 GBP) = 152     1.52 (Y1 GBP) / 1.62 (Y2 GBP) = 93.82716049     93.82716049 * 11.2 (Y2 HKD)  = 1050.864198  

3rd attempt

    100 (Euros) / 1.52 (Y1 GBP) = 65.78947368     65.78947368 * 1.62 (Y2 GBP) = 106.57894747     106.57894747 * 11.2 (Y2 HKD) = 1193.684211 OR     106.57894747 / 11.2 (Y2 HKD) = 9.515977444 

Thanks in advance for your valueable time in helping me.

1 Answers 1

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  1. 100 Euros are equivalent to 152 pounds in Year 1.

  2. In Y2, I exchange them for HKD. Thus, I need the value of 1 GBP in terms of HKD. I know that:

    1 Euro = 1.62 GBP and that 1 Euro = 11.2 HKD

    Assuming no arbitrage opportunity exists between Euro, GBP and HKD, in Y2 1 GBP = 11.2/1.62 HKD = 6.91358 HKD.

    It follows that 152 GBP is equivalent to 1050.864198 HKD. Or to round it off to the nearest 'cent?', we have the answer as: HKD 1050.86. My computation agrees with your second attempt which I believe is the way to go.

It looks as if none of the answers match. So, either the numbers in question are incorrect or the answer choices are incorrect or I am missing something!

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    those were the only choices available. I don't quite understand what you mean by your comments. Have I upset you?2011-11-28