Given some category ${\mathcal C}$, then the opposite category will consist of the same objects with the morphisms "turned around." Given $f:A\rightarrow B$, for $A,B$ objects of ${\mathcal C}$, then in general do we have a canonical $f^{op}:B\rightarrow A$ which is induced by $f$?
Slight Motivation: This is something that's just been bothering me recently, and I feel like I am thinking about this concept incorrectly. To make this question slightly less vague, if we had, say, the category of rings and we had the mapping $f:{\mathbb Z}\rightarrow {\mathbb Z}/2{\mathbb Z}$ by $f$ sends even numbers to 0 and odd numbers to 1, then what is the corresponding map in the opposite category, $f^{op}:{\mathbb Z}/2{\mathbb Z}\rightarrow {\mathbb Z}$ induced by $f$?
Also, I always see this $f^{op}$ that I've mentioned just written as $f$; is this shorthand, or is there something deeper there?