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I need some help proving the following:

Let $\mathbb{F} = \{0, 1, a, b\}$ be a field with four elements. Prove that $a^2 = b$.
You can use $a \cdot 0 = 0$ without proving it.

Attempted solution:

$ a^2 = b \\ aa = b \\ aa + 0 = b + 0 $ We know $a \cdot 0 = 0$ so we can substitute for zero $ aa + a \cdot 0 = b $ Using the additive inverse of $aa$ we get: $ (aa) + (-aa) + a \cdot 0 = b + (-aa) \\ a \cdot 0 = b + (-aa) $ I’m still not getting the concept of how to prove things, maybe a little insight into what are possible steps to approach problems like these.

Thats as far as I got, any help is appreciated.

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    Can the multiplicative group of F in this case be regarded as the Klein four group? Thanks in any case. – 2011-02-21

2 Answers 2

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Note that $0$ and $1$ are distinguished elements, so none of the others should be equal to them. Now, $b \cdot a$ cannot be equal to $a$ or $b$ becaus then $b$ or $a$ would be $1$, respectively, but that cannot happen as they are distinct elements. Similarly, $b \cdot a$ cannot be $0$. Hence, $b \cdot a = 1$.

Use this type of reasoning to think what $a^2$ cannot be, and you'll find the anwser: what is $a$ if $a^2 = 0$?

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    Yes, it is in fact the case that $a^2 = 1$ implies $a=1$. Check Jay's answer below. – 2011-02-21
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Consider that the map $x \mapsto ax$ must be bijective (because the field is finite -- should be easy to show). We know, $a \cdot 0 = 0$ $a \cdot 1 = a$ This means $a\cdot a = b$ or $a \cdot a = 1.$ But in the latter case we get $a \cdot b = b,$ which implies $a = 1,$ which is not true (by uniqueness of 1).