Hi I am learning group theory and encountered this: (B\cap (A\cap B)')\cup (B'\cap (A\cap B)) = B\cap (A'\cup B').
I don't understand how this is true, could someone please show me proof?
Thanks
Hi I am learning group theory and encountered this: (B\cap (A\cap B)')\cup (B'\cap (A\cap B)) = B\cap (A'\cup B').
I don't understand how this is true, could someone please show me proof?
Thanks
Assuming the prime denotes complementation: The second term on the left, B'\cap(A\cap B), is empty, since $B$ and B' are disjoint. That leaves B\cap(A\cap B)'. You can use De Morgan's law (A\cap B)'=A'\cup B' to transform this into the right-hand side.