Intuitively, I can understand that if an event C occurs with some probability P(C) AND event D occurs with some probability P(D), then drawing a venn diagram of them it wouldn't matter whether the C or D came first.
However, I can't seem to find anything to back this up and thus don't feel comfortable using this 'identity'. Can anyone confirm this for me?
Is $P(C \cup D) = P( D \cup C)$?
0
$\begingroup$
probability
elementary-set-theory
-
9Yes. But more fundamentally $C\cup D = D \cup C$ as sets. – 2011-09-25
1 Answers
3
This is always true because $C\cup D = D\cup C$ as sets.