Me and a friend of mine worked on building a problem for AMM. It all started pretty well, but in the end we realized that the initial part of the solution was wrong. In few words, we thought we have proven that
$\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(\log_{p_{n+1}} ((n+1)!)-\log_{p_n}(n!)\right)=1$
where $p_n$ is the $n$-th prime number.
Denoting $x_n=\log_{p_n}(n!)$, there are a few ways that I think it is possible to prove that $x_{n+1}-x_n \to 1$:
First, maybe it is possible by direct computation (we tried and didn't get anything). The second method is by using Stolz-Cesàro in a different way: if we prove that $(x_{n+1}-x_n)$ is convergent then it should have the same limit as $x_n/n$ which converges to $1$.
So my question is:
Is it true that $(x_{n+1}-x_n) \to 1$, or at least $(x_{n+1}-x_n)$ is convergent?
Thank you.