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Can anyone help explain to me what the general solution is to this? As I understand it is not the same as dealing with PDE's as $f$ is a function of $z=x+iy$ so is probably not $f=g(z)+h(\bar{z})$

$\frac{\partial}{\partial \bar{z}}\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\right)=0$

Thanks very much in advance

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    It is a map with two independent real compenents, each of which is harmonic.2011-12-28

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Your differential equation is solved by any holomorphic function.

In fact, call $w=\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}$ and your equation rewrites $\frac{\partial w}{\partial \bar{z}}=0$; hence, if the domain of $f$ (and of $w$, of course) is a simply connected open set, $w$ is a holomorphic function; but then also $f$ is holomorphic (for it is an antiderivative of $w$).

On the other hand, is $f$ is holomorphic in a simply connected open set, then $\frac{\partial f}{\partial z} =f^\prime$ is also holomorphic there; therefore $\frac{\partial f^\prime}{\partial \bar{z}} =0$.

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    yes, but that's not the general solution.2011-12-28