if $f$ is integrable, i wish to show
$\frac{n}{2} \int_{-1/n}^{1/n} (f(x+y) - f(x))dy \to 0 $ as $ n \to \infty $
this looks to be very intuitive, but im having trouble proving it formally. any tips?
EDIT: added the n infront of the integral, thanks Jonas