One version of the Prime Number Theorem is that $p_n \sim n \ \ln \ n$, while by Stirling's formula $\ln(n!) \sim n \ \ln \ n$; consequently, $p_n \sim \ln(n!)$, $\rm \color{red}{\text{and } e^{-p_n} \sim \frac{1}{n!} ^{(*)}}$. Now, each side of the latter formula has a simple interpretation in the context of random permutations of $n$ elements. On the one hand, each possible outcome of a random permutation of $\langle 1,2,\dots,n \rangle$ has probability $\frac{1}{n!}$. On the other hand, the limiting probability (as $n \to\infty)$ that such a random permutation has no fixed point (i.e., that $\mathrm{perm} \langle 1,2,\dots,n \rangle$ does not match $\langle 1,2,\dots,n \rangle$ in any position) is $e^{-1}$; so, for $p_n$ independent random permutations of $\langle 1,2,\dots,n \rangle$, the probability that none of them has a fixed point is $e^{-p_n}$.
Are there "intuitive" grounds for expecting the event $E_n$ := "each of $p_n$ independent random permutations of $n$ elements has no fixed point" to have asymptotic probability $\frac1{n!}$?
$\rm \color{red}{^{(*)} \text{This is a non sequitur and is in fact false, as described in the answer and comments below.}}$