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? For monoids $(M,b,u)$ and (M',b',u'), show by an example that a morphism f\colon (M,b)\to (M',b') of binary operations need not be a morphism of units.

This is a homework problem I got. I think it doesn't make sense, because if $u$ is the unit of the binary operation $b$ on $M$, then by definition of morphism, for all $x$ in $M$, $f(x\,b\,u)=f(x)$ and f(x\,b\, u)=f(x) \,b'\, f(u), so f(x)=f(x)\, b'\, f(u) for all $x$, then by definition of unit, $f(u)$ is the unit of the binary operation b' on M'.

So this means that all morphisms of binary operations have to be morphisms of units at the same time. I don't understand why this problem wants me to think of an example that it's not so.

Have I misread this problem, or is it just wrong?

Thanks

By the way, is it OK if I just find an $f(x)$ that's not a surjection, so that f(x) \,b'\, f(u)=f(x) does not work for all the elements in M'?

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    @Aleš Bizjak: thanks2011-09-26

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As has been pointed out, your argument shows that $f(u)$ is a unit of $f(M)$, not that $f(u)$ is a unit of M'. The argument suffices for surjective maps, but not for non-surjective maps.

An easy example is to take $f\colon(\mathbb{N},\times,1)\to(\mathbb{N},\times,1)$, with $f(n)=0$ for all $n$ (my naturals have $0$ in them; if yours don't, then just take he nonnegative integers instead.

Another example is to take any monoid with a zero element, say $(\mathbb{Z},\times, 0)$, and consider $M=(\mathbb{Z},\times,1)$ and M'=(\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z},\times,(1,1)), and let $f$ be the inclusion into the first coordinate, $f(n) = (n,0)$.

You can probably now cook up lots of examples along similar lines. All you need is an idempotent (an element $e$ such that $e^2=e$) which is not the unit of M'.

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    So, two [downvotes](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/67677/using-axiom-of-choice/67680#67680), within a minute of one another, with no explanation on either...2011-09-26