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We know that a sum of the form $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left|\frac{sin(a\pi n)}{a\pi n}\right|$ where $a$ is not an integer, is unbounded and tends to infinity. But what about the expression $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left|\frac{sin(a\pi n)}{a\pi n}\right|^p$ where $1. Would anyone please provide some insight on this?

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    Thank you for pointing this out Ansel. There were alot of thoughts going through my head when i jotted this down!2011-04-18

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Since $|\sin(a\pi n)|\le1$ and the potential series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} n^{-p}$ converges if and only if $p>1$, the comparison principle implies that your series converges for all $p>1$.

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    About my previous comment: the value of the sum is valid for 0< a<2.2011-04-19