I'm trying to prove the following statements.
Let $G$ be a finite abelian group $G = \{a_{1}, a_{2}, ..., a_{n}\}$.
- If there is no element $x \neq e$ in $G$ such that $x = x^{-1}$, then $a_{1}a_{2} \cdot \cdot \cdot a_{n} = e$.
Since the only element in $G$ that is an inverse of itself is the identity element $e$, for every other element $k$, it must have an inverse $a_{k}^{-1} = a_{j}$ where $k \neq j$. Thus $a_{1}a_{1}^{-1}a_{2}a_{2}^{-1} \cdot \cdot \cdot a_{n}a_{n}^{-1} = e$.
- If there is exactly one $x \neq e$ in $G$ such that $x = x^{-1}$, then $a_{1}a_{2} \cdot \cdot \cdot a_{n} = x$.
This is stating that $x$ is not the identity element but is its own inverse. Then every other element $p$ must also have an inverse $a_{p}^{-1} = a_{w}$ where $p \neq w$. Similarly to the first question, a rearrangement can be done: $a_{1}a_{1}^{-1}a_{2}a_{2}^{-1} \cdot \cdot \cdot xx^{-1} \cdot \cdot \cdot a_{n}a_{n}^{-1} = xx^{-1} = e$. And this is where I am stuck since I proved another statement.
Any comments would be appreciated for both problems.