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The following differentiated implicitly with respect to $\theta$:

$3x = \tan \, \theta $

The book says

$3 dx = \sec^2 \theta \, d \theta$

One could start the calculation like this (I think):

$ \frac{d}{d \theta}3x = \frac{d}{d \theta} \tan \, \theta $

From there I'm not really sure about the steps.

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    you can do any of the ways, it gives you the same result.2011-04-19

3 Answers 3

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I don't know what you are asking but I will explain how I view this sort of thing.

What is meant by $3x = \tan(\theta)$ is that both sides are the same function of $x$ or $\theta$ and $x$ and $\theta$ are related somehow. Writing out the relation explicitly we have $3x = \tan(\theta(x)).$ Now define $f(x) = 3x$ and $g(x) = \tan(\theta(x))$, this equation means that $f = g$.

Applying the derivative operator to both sides f' = g' we have 3 = \theta'(x)\sec(\theta(x))^2 (by the chain rule and derivative of tan = sec^2). Now you can write it as a differential 3 \mathrm{d}x = \sec(\theta(x))^2 \theta'(x) \mathrm{d}x = \sec(\theta)^2 \mathrm{d}\theta since \theta'(x) \mathrm{d}x = \mathrm{d}\theta.

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    I just leveled up! Thank you!2011-04-19
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This is differential notation. If $y=f(x)$, then it is customary to write dy=f'(x)dx. What this says is that a small change in $x$, $dx$, produces an approximate change on $y$ of f'(x)dx. In your instance you have $x=f(\theta)$ and so dx=f'(\theta)d\theta. The concept comes into play when you talk about linear approximation and you are using the differentials to approximate error. So you have

$ x=\frac{1}{3}\tan\theta $

which gives

$ dx=\frac{1}{3}\sec^2(\theta) d\theta. $

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It is simply that $\frac{d}{d \theta} \left( 3x \right) = \frac{d}{d \theta} \left( \tan \theta \right)$

Then we know that $\frac{d}{d \theta } \left( \tan \theta \right) = \mbox{sec}^2 \theta $

and

$\frac{d}{d \theta} \left( 3x \right) = 3 \frac{dx}{d \theta}$

(Can you see why?)

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    @Algific If you have a look at quanta's answer - I could really write $3 x(\theta)$. Then it should be clear2011-04-19