We all know that Prof.John Tate proposed a set of conjectures(along with Prof.Emil Artin) formally spread under the name of "Tate conjectures", they have a wide range of influence on various fields of studies, like for example recently Prof.Mathew Emerton in his magnificent answer quoted that Tate conjectures(in some sense) can be thought as an analogue of Birch and Swinnerton-Dyer conjectures and Prof.Emerton gave a short intuition into the subject by representing the how can one spread out elliptic curve into elliptic surface and also that how the conjecture can be restated in this case, and he writes that the equivalent formulation is " every Frobenius invariant element actually arises from a curve defined over $\mathbb F$ " .
But Prof.Emerton didn't had a need of elaborating the meaning behind the statement as he was trying to answer another question ( but he was kind in mentioning all these details instead of directly going into the point ) , but I have thought that the comparision could be found on internet and I read quite many articles but I couldn't find atleast one such article clearly stating the link between those conjectures, so I wanted to ask it under another question (as Math.SE mandatorily sees the effort of user, so I took much time reading myself and then wanted to ask as its out of my reach).
So my main doubt is that
" How can one think the B.S.D and Tate-conjecture imply each other ? "
Due to my past background I know that the rank-part of the B.S.D was intending to comment the cardinality of the group $E(\mathbb{Q})$ (set of rational points on $E$) by linking the algebraic part to analytic part, but it was clear in that case that if the curve has lot many rational points then the $N_p$ must be substantially large pushing the product to zero for range of large primes, but how can the link the frobenius-invariant to these things and how can one show that the statement is analogue of other.
To be sharp I am expecting an answer in giving the explanation that
How can one say that [$L(E,1)=0 \iff E(\mathbb{Q})$ is infinite]$\iff$[every Frobenius invariant element actually arises from a curve defined over $\mathbb F$]
I wanted to know the things happening under them, like I mean how can one compare each of them in deep.(comparing analogous terms present on each side)
P.S : If the person who answers this question has some time and energy left to answer, I will be happy to hear the implication chain of B.S.D . (Implication chain length is a new word introduced by me just for the purpose of explaining, [B.S.D for modular forms]$\iff$[B.S.D for rationals]$\iff$[Tate-conjectures]... , so complete implication chain in all possible directions is what I am intending to hear.
Thank you.