(Apologies, this was initially incorrectly posted on mathoveflow)
In the MIT 18.01 practice questions for Exam 4 problem 3b (link below), we are asked to express $\int^1_0x^2 e^{-x^2} dx$ in terms of $\int^1_0e^{-x^2} dx$
I understand that this should involve using integration by parts but the given solution doesn't show working and I'm not able to obtain the same answer regardless of how I set up the integration.
Link to the practice exam:
http://ocw.mit.edu/courses/mathematics/18-01-single-variable-calculus-fall-2006/exams/prexam4a.pdf