Of course it is easy using existence and uniqueness of prime factorizations. Below is a more general proof using gcd's (or ideals) that has the benefit of giving an explicit closed form.
$ab=c^n \overset{\rm Lemma}\Rightarrow c=(a,c)(b,c) \,\Rightarrow\, ab = (a,c)^n(b,c)^n\Rightarrow \dfrac{a}{(b,c)^n}\! = \dfrac{(a,c)^n}b$ $\,\Rightarrow\begin{align} a &= (a,c)^n\\ b &= (b,c)^n\end{align}$
where the last inference uses Unique Fractionization [both fractions are irreducible by $(a,b)\!=\!1$]
Lemma $\ \ \color{#c00}{c\mid ab},\,\ \color{#0a0}{(a,b,c)=1}\ \Rightarrow \ c = (a,c)(b,c)\ [=\, (ab,c\color{#0a0}{(a,b,c)}) = (\color{#c00}{ab,c}) = c\,]$
Remark $ $ Alternatively $\ (a,c)^n\! = (a^n,c^n) = (a^n,ab) = a(a^n,b) = a$ and $\,(b,c)^n = b\,$ by symmetry where the first equality employs the Freshman's Dream.
As $ $ Weil remarks, $ $ this result can be viewed as the essence of Fermat's method of infinite descent. $ $ It generalizes to rings of algebraic integers but depends upon much deeper results in this more general context, viz. the finiteness of the class number and Dirichlet's unit theorem.