It seems that the claim does not hold. Define $\Gamma:\mathbb{R}\to\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})$ by $\Gamma(x)=\mathbb{Q}$, if $x\neq 0$, and $\Gamma(0)=\mathbb{R}$.
$\Gamma$ is upper hemicontinuous everywhere. Pick $x\in\mathbb{R}$ and an open neighbourhood $V$ of $\Gamma(x)$. If $x=0$, choose $U=\mathbb{R}$, and if $x\neq 0$, choose $U=\mathbb{R}\setminus\{0\}$. Then $\Gamma(y)$ is a subset of $V$ for each $y\in U$.
$\Gamma$ is lower hemicontinuous everywhere. Pick $x\in\mathbb{R}$ and an open set $V$ intersecting $\Gamma(x)$. Note that $V$ contains a rational number, so we can choose $U=\mathbb{R}$. Certainly $\Gamma(y)$ intersects $V$ for each $y\in U$.
The claim does not hold in this case. The point $y=0$ is in the interior of $\Gamma(0)=\mathbb{R}$, but any open set $U$ containing $0$ contains another point $x$ too. Since the interior of $\Gamma(x)=\mathbb{Q}$ is empty, it certainly does not contain $y$.