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Possible Duplicate:
Is this GCD statement true?

Suppose we have integers $h$, $i$, $j$, and $k$. Can we always say that $ \gcd(h,i) \cdot \gcd(j,k) \,| \, \gcd(hj,ik) \ ?$ If so, how can we prove it?

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    Yes, but the second answer (Bill Dubuque's answer) you got there actually proved *this* problem. If the problem was incorrect then, the correct course of action would have been to *edit* that question to correct it, instead of posting it anew when **this** question was already answered there. If you did not understand Bill Dubuque's answer there, then you should ask for clarification through comments. I encourage you to edit that question to make the correction.2011-10-17

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