Motivation: As I wrote in this answer the following product is evaluated in Proposition 5 of Jean-Paul Allouche and Jeffrey Shallit's paper The ubiquitous Prouhet-Thue-Morse sequence
$P=\displaystyle\prod_{n=0}^{\infty }\left( \frac{2n+1}{2n+2}\right) ^{(-1)^{t_{n}}},$
where $\left( t_{n}\right) _{n\geq 0}=\left( 0,1,1,0,1,0,0,1,\ldots \right) $ is a binary sequence defined recursively by $t_{0}=0,t_{2n}=t_{n}$ and $% t_{2n+1}=1-t_{n}$ for $n\geq 0$. According to the authors the product is "convergent by Abel's theorem", but I have no idea which theorem is this. Due to the properties of $\left( t_{n}\right) $ the terms of $P$ can be broken into two groups of two terms each (this idea came from Ross Millikan). I got:
$\begin{eqnarray*} P &=&\displaystyle\prod_{m=0}^{\infty }\left( \frac{8m+1}{8m+2}\frac{8m+4}{8m+3}\cdot \frac{8m+6}{8m+5}\frac{8m+7}{8m+8}\right) ^{(-1)^{t_{m}}} \\ &=&\displaystyle\prod_{m=0}^{\infty }\left( 1-\frac{1}{32m^{2}+20m+3}\right) ^{(-1)^{t_{m}}}\displaystyle\prod_{m=0}^{\infty }\left( 1+\frac{1}{32m^{2}+52m+20}% \right) ^{(-1)^{t_{m}}}\text{.} \end{eqnarray*}$
and wonder if this form helps to prove the convergence of $P$ in a similar way to the proof of the $\displaystyle\prod_{n=0}^{\infty }\left( 1+b_{n}\right) $ (with $b_{n}\rightarrow 0,b_{n}>0$) is convergent iff $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty }b_{n}$ is convergent.
Question:
A - Which is the Abel's theorem the authors refer to?
B - Suppose we have a product
$\begin{equation*} P^{\prime }=\displaystyle\prod_{n=0}^{\infty }\left( 1+b_{n}\right) ^{e_{n}}\qquad (\ast ) \end{equation*},$ where [edited] $b_n>0$ is such that $\displaystyle\sum b_n$ converges [end edit], and $e_{n}$ is a sequence that takes $-1$ and $+1$ values.
- Is $P^{\prime }$ convergent? I think so for if I take the logarithm of $P$ I get $\begin{equation*} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty }e_{n}\ln (1+b_{n}) \end{equation*}$ and this series is absolutely convergent $\begin{equation*} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty }\left\vert e_{n}\ln (1+b_{n})\right\vert \leq \sum_{n=0}^{\infty }\left\vert \ln (1+b_{n})\right\vert \end{equation*}$ by the limit comparison test $\begin{equation*} \underset{n\rightarrow \infty }{\lim }\frac{\ln (1+b_{n})}{b_{n}}=1. \end{equation*}$
- Is this argument valid?
- Similar for $\begin{equation*} P^{\prime \prime }=\displaystyle\prod_{n=0}^{\infty }\left( 1-a_{n}\right) ^{e_{n}},\qquad (\ast \ast ) \end{equation*},$ where [edit] $0
is such that $\displaystyle\sum a_n$ converges [end edit]. The limit comparison test would be $\begin{equation*} \underset{n\rightarrow \infty }{\lim }\left\vert \frac{\ln (1-a_{n})}{-a_{n}}% \right\vert =1\text{.} \end{equation*}$