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I would like a proof that $e$ isn't a fraction $\frac{a}{b}$, for $a,b \in Z$ and $mdc(a,b)=1$.

Just a observation =) I'd like a proof with fractions, not about $e$ irrationality or if $e$ is transcendental. In other words, prove $e$ is not a fraction prove it is irrational, but, I need a prove to this irrationality using fractions, is there any?

Thx.

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    Since “irrational” means **exactly** “cannot be written as a fraction (with integral numerator and denominator)”, it is not at all clear what you mean by “not about $e$ irrationality”, nor by “irrationality with other ways”. And a proof of irrationality seems bound to use fractions. It would be helpful if you were to remove these unclear requirements from your question, especially since you have accepted a quite standard proof using infinite series – is an infinite series not “other ways”?2015-12-06

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The Wikipedia proof of the irrationality of $e$ is a little more complicated than necessary, because one has to do a bit of work to estimate the "tail." (We assume familiarity with the Wikipedia proof, which is the usual one.) We prove the same result, using the same basic idea, but with a little twist.

From the series for $e^x$, evaluated at $x=-1$, we can see that $e^{-1}=\sum_2^\infty (-1)^n\frac{1}{n!}=\frac{1}{2!}-\frac{1}{3!} +\frac{1}{4!}-\frac{1}{5!}+\cdots.$

Suppose that $e$ is rational. Then $e^{-1}$ is also rational, say $e^{-1}=a/b$, and therefore $b!\, e^{-1}$ is an integer $N$. But $N=b!\,e^{-1}=H+T$, where $H=b!\:\sum_{2}^b (-1)^n \frac{1}{n!}$ and $T=b!\:\sum_{b+1}^\infty (-1)^n\frac{1}{n!}.$ Note that $H$ is an integer. If we can show that the "tail" $T$ is not an integer, we will have a contradiction.

By a standard fact about alternating series, the error when we truncate an alternating series has absolute value less than the absolute value of the first neglected term, and the same sign as the first neglected term.

If we truncate the series for $e^{-1}$ at the term $(-1)^b \frac{1}{b!}$, the error is therefore non-zero and has absolute value less than $\frac{1}{(b+1)!}$. It follows that $0<|T| < \frac{b!}{(b+1)!}<1,$ and therefore $T$ cannot be an integer.

Comment: In the proof on Wikipedia, we bound the tail by comparing with a geometric series. This is certainly not difficult! But in the setting of a standard calculus course, the basic facts about alternating series are always discussed, and one might as well exploit that.

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    Thx. It's a good proof. I will change my answer to this post becuase it's a local proof to math.SE, so, if other people search about that they will find this. And it's a bit simple too. Asked too in [Meta.SE](http://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/109734/changing-the-answer-how-it-works) how to proceed. Thx.2011-10-19
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What is wrong with the wikipedia proof?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_that_e_is_irrational

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    Lol, I didn't see that, I'll read and return. Thx.2011-10-19
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Continued_fraction will help you. There is obvious theorem: $x$ is rational if and only if it has finite continued fraction. Then try to find continued fraction to $e$, you'll get infinite fraction. It means $e$ is irrational. IMHO very simple. The main problem is to find this fraction. $[2,1,1,2,1,1,4,1,1,6,1,1...]$ and so on corresponds to $e$

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    Thx...I think I have a strange process to find if a number is transcendental, using this fractions...if it works i will post later. Thx.2011-10-19