We have that $k[V_2]=k[x,y,z]/(x-1,yz-1)\cong k[y,z]/(yz-1)$. You can show that the map from $V_2$ to $\mathbb{A}^1-\{0\}$ defined by $(x,y,z)\mapsto y$ is an isomorphism by showing that the corresponding morphism of coordinate rings $k[\mathbb{A}^1-\{0\}]=k[y,y^{-1}]\rightarrow k[y,z]/(yz-1)$ (i.e., the morphism defined by $y\mapsto y$, $y^{-1}\mapsto z$) is an isomorphism. Because $\mathbb{A}^1-\{0\}$ is a non-empty open set of the irreducible set $\mathbb{A}^1$, it is also irreducible, and hence $V_2$ is irreducible as well.
I feel like this may be a bit roundabout, but I think it works.
The dimension of $Y$ is 1, because a maximal-length chain of irreducible subsets of $Y$ will start at either of its irreducible components, each of which is dimension 1. The irreducible components are a line, which is clearly of dimension 1 (also: its coordinate ring is $k[y]$, which is a ring of dimension 1), and a hyperbola $yz-1$, which (as we showed above) is isomorphic to $\mathbb{A}^1-\{0\}$, and by Prop 1.10 in Hartshorne, $\dim(Y)=\dim(\overline{Y})$ for any quasi-affine variety $Y$.
I often find it helpful to try to visualize what's going on - here is the output from Mathematica. The two planes are the zero locus of $xz-z$, and the cone is the zero locus of $x^2-yz$ - their intersection is, as expected, the $y$-axis and a hyperbola which lies on the plane $x=1$.
