Ok this is probably the most absurd question you'll ever read, but it came to my mind, and I cant shake it off. Eulers Identity states that: $e^{i\pi}+1=0$. So my ridiculous question is why was it stated this way? Why couldnt it have been $e^{i\pi}=-1$? Are there any reasons for this, or it could have been either of the two, but this one was chosen?
Why is Euler's Identity stated the way it is?
2
$\begingroup$
calculus
-
0@Mitch: That's my earnest opinion. How about $e^{i\pi/4} = \sqrt{1/2}(1+i)$? – 2011-02-13
1 Answers
11
The reason is to get just the $5$ "fundamental" numbers $\pi,e,i,0,1$ into one equation.