I understand why in the category of sets two parallel morphisms $f, g: A \rightarrow B$ are identical iff for each element $x: 1 \rightarrow A$ it holds that $f\circ x = g \circ x$.
Awodey on p. 36 of Category Theory asks (as an exercise), why in any category two parallel morphisms $f, g: A \rightarrow B$ are identical iff for each generalized element $x: X \rightarrow A$ it holds that $f\circ x = g \circ x$.
Could someone please give me a hint how to prove this?