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In the proof of Theorem I(c) from this paper (pdf) (original zip), there is a proposition that says:

So by our choice of $g$ we get $\theta/p \mid \psi/p$ whence $\theta \mid \psi$.

(this is the 3rd complete sentence on the right-hand column of p. 204)

How do I use the "So by our choice of $g$ we get"? Why does $g$ not have any other degree? Why is the choice small as possible thus contravening c)?

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    Agree with Srivatsan. Zip-file is too much effort. With the SW I have, I would first need to download the file to my computer, then unzip it, and only then I could take a look. Sorry, will not do. If I were sure this is about the kind of coding theory that I know about, I might unzip it. But even the notation is all Greek to me! So it may be source coding as opposed to channel coding?2011-09-20

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