7
$\begingroup$

This exercise is from a "challenge" list that my analysis teacher gave us to do:

Let $X$ be a set. There are two trivial topologies:

Indiscrete (not sure if this is the actual name, as I am translating from another language) Topology: the open sets are exactly $X$ and the empty set.

Discrete Topology: every subset of $X$ is open.

Deduce that the indiscrete topology is not metrizable and the discrete topology is metrizable.

My problem is that this is a "first/second" course in real analysis and no one in the class has seen topology and metric spaces beyond the basics, so I pretty much have no idea of how to do this. Suggestions on how to prove this (proofs itself are not needed) will be very much appreciated.

P.S.: I've looked myself at some topology books and I think I'm not supposed to use anything like Hausdorff spaces and stuff like that (not even sure if that is the actual way to go).

3 Answers 3

12

You're almost there.

For a space to have a metric, you must be able to distinguish any two points, that is: $d(x,y)=0$ if and only if $x=y$. But the indiscrete topology has way too few open sets for this to be possible, i.e. there cannot be any $\epsilon$-balls separating $x$ from $y$.

For the discrete topology, here's a hint: the discrete metric.

(alternatively: every metric space is Hausdorff)

  • 0
    Note to Myself: I agree with comment by myself.2011-06-17
6

That $X$ has more than one element is implicit in the above answers. If $X$ has exactly one element the discrete and indiscrete topologies coincide and are metrizable.

  • 0
    Fortunately, the proof I came up with take care of that. Thanks for pointing it out thought.2011-04-20
5

the discrete topology is metrizable, $d(x,y)=1$ for all $x\neq y$. the indiscrete (if|X|>1) is not metrizable since points will not be closed.