Question: If $E\subseteq {\mathbb R}$ and if there is some $G_{\delta}$ set $G$ such that $E\subseteq G$ and $m^{\ast}(G - E) = 0$ (where this is the outer measure that is used to define the Lebesgue measure), then $E$ is (Lebesgue) measurable.
Motivation: This is part of a question in Royden's book (page 64) which probably should be obvious to me. The way that I wanted to do this question was to use the equivalence that if, given $\epsilon > 0$, there is some open set $U\supseteq E$ such that $m^{\ast}(U-E) < \epsilon$ then $E$ is measurable. Since a $G_{\delta}$ set is not necessarily open, but made up of a countable intersection of open sets, I wanted to make it the limit of some open sets. So, if $U_{i}$ are open, I wanted to say that $G = \bigcap_{i}U_{i}$, and we can find an open set that we need just by taking some finite intersection (say, up to $N$) of the $U_{i}$. I'm not entirely convinced that I'm given these $U_{i}$, though, if I just know that $G$ is a $G_{\delta}$ set.
(Also, I think this question is different from the other few asking about related issues, but if it is not, then I will delete it.)