So we have $\sum_{n \leq x} \frac{\Lambda (n)}{n}=\log{x}+C+o(1)$ where $C$ is a constant, its partial summation is $\sum_{n \leq x} \frac{\Lambda (n)}{n}=\frac{\psi(x)}{x}+\int_1^x \frac{\psi (t)}{t^2} dt$ How should I go from here to prove that $\psi(x) \sim x$, which is a equivalent form of PNT.
How will this equation imply PNT
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analytic-number-theory
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0I don't know. What makes you think it is possible to go from those two equations to $\psi(x)\sim x$? – 2011-10-16
1 Answers
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Do you mean $O(1)$ or $o(1)$ in your first equation? If the former, then (a) it doesn't make sense to include the $C$ term, since it can be absorbed into the error and (b) I don't think that estimate is strong enough to prove PNT.
If you mean $o(1)$, then see my blog post, especially part 3.
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0FYI part 4. there includes $1/\log1$ summands. – 2011-10-16