I am reading about optimization and I am having difficulty in understanding the following:
If a matrix A is $n\times n$ Hermitian, then $\max_{x^{*}x=1} x^{*}Ax$ is solution equivalent to $\max_{x^{*}Ax=1} \frac{1}{x^{*}x}$.
Can someone help me understand how to arrive at this conclusion, or to show that they are indeed the same? Thanks.